Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-4
1. Public consultation may be dispensed with in case of:
a. Festival season
b. Urgency concerning food safety or public health
c. Industry demand
d. Export orders
2. Emergency regulations without consultation are valid for:
a. 1 year
b. Not more than 6 months
c. 3 years
d. Unlimited period
3. One objective of Food Authority is:
a. Increase food prices
b. Protection of consumer interests
c. Reduce food safety rules
d. Promote monopoly
4. Food standards should help consumers:
a. Guess food quality
b. Make informed choices
c. Depend on advertisements
d. Avoid regulation
5. Food Authority ensures prevention of:
a. Only export fraud
b. Fraudulent, deceptive or unfair trade practices
c. Only taxation issues
d. Only farming issues
6. The Act aims to prevent:
a. Safe food distribution
b. Unsafe or sub-standard food
c. Organic certification
d. Agricultural subsidies
7. Consumer protection includes:
a. Ignoring food quality
b. Protection from misleading practices
c. Only price control
d. Only import control
8. Transparent risk assessment ensures:
a. Hidden decision making
b. Scientific and objective evaluation
c. Political influence
d. Industry dominance
9. Panchayats are included in:
a. Military decisions
b. Public consultation process
c. Export control
d. Tax collection
10. The overall focus of these provisions is:
a. Trade restriction only
b. Safety, transparency and consumer protection
c. Industry monopoly
d. Government profit
11. Food additives or processing aids in food must comply with:
a. Market demand rules
b. Provisions of the Act and regulations
c. Export policies only
d. Industry agreements only
12. An article of food can contain food additives only if:
a. Approved under Act and regulations
b. Added freely without restriction
c. Added only for taste
d. Approved by sellers
13. A “processing aid” is:
a. A food consumed as main ingredient
b. Any substance used during processing not consumed as food ingredient itself
c. A packaging material only
d. A flavoring agent always eaten directly
14. Processing aid is used:
a. For decoration only
b. To fulfil a technological purpose during processing
c. To increase price only
d. To change labeling only
15. Processing aids may result in:
a. Permanent additives in food
b. Unavoidable residues in final product
c. Removal of all nutrients
d. No effect on food
16. Food shall not contain contaminants in:
a. Any quantity
b. Excess of limits specified by regulations
c. Unlimited quantities if natural
d. Only imported food
17. Which of the following is NOT allowed in excess?
a. Heavy metals
b. Hormones
c. Contaminants
d. Safe nutrients
18. Naturally occurring toxic substances in food:
a. Are always permitted
b. Are restricted if beyond specified limits
c. Are encouraged
d. Are irrelevant under Act
19. Food safety regulations control:
a. Only packaging
b. Contaminants and toxic substances
c. Only transport
d. Only pricing
20. Heavy metals in food:
a. Are unrestricted
b. Must be within regulatory limits
c. Are ignored if natural
d. Are always beneficial
21. Hormones in food are:
a. Always required
b. Restricted under safety regulations
c. Not regulated
d. Used freely in all food
22. The main purpose of Section 20 is to:
a. Promote additives
b. Ensure food safety from toxic substances and contaminants
c. Increase food export
d. Reduce food inspection
23. Processing aids differ from additives because they:
a. Are always eaten directly
b. Are not consumed as food ingredient themselves
c. Are always harmful
d. Are packaging materials
24. Residues of processing aids in final food are:
a. Always prohibited
b. May be present unintentionally
c. Always required
d. Not possible
25. Food safety standards for contaminants are set by:
a. Private companies
b. Regulations under the Act
c. Consumers
d. Farmers only
26. Food shall not contain pesticide residues in:
a. Any amount
b. Excess of tolerance limits specified by regulations
c. Only imported food
d. Only packaged food
27. Which of the following must not exceed regulatory limits in food?
a. Pesticide residues
b. Veterinary drug residues
c. Antibiotic residues
d. All of the above
28. Microbiological counts in food must be:
a. Unlimited
b. Within specified tolerance limits
c. Ignored if natural
d. Only checked for exports
29. Solvent residues in food are:
a. Always required
b. Restricted under regulations
c. Not regulated
d. Encouraged for preservation
30. Direct use of insecticides on food is:
a. Always allowed
b. Prohibited except approved fumigants
c. Mandatory in agriculture
d. Not regulated
31. Fumigants used on food must be:
a. Randomly selected
b. Registered and approved under Insecticides Act, 1968
c. Approved by retailers
d. Imported only
32. “Pesticide residue” includes:
a. Only original pesticide chemical
b. Metabolites and derivatives with toxicological significance
c. Only packaging contamination
d. Only water content
33. Pesticide residues may come into food from:
a. Only manufacturing
b. Environment as well
c. Only packaging
d. Only cooking
34. Veterinary drug residues include:
a. Only medicines in humans
b. Parent compounds and metabolites in animal products
c. Only antibiotics in plants
d. Only preservatives
35. Veterinary drug residues are found in:
a. Edible portions of animal products
b. Only water
c. Only soil
d. Only packaging
36. Antibiotic residues in food must be:
a. Unlimited
b. Within tolerance limits
c. Encouraged
d. Ignored
37. Pharmacological active substances in food are:
a. Always prohibited
b. Regulated under tolerance limits
c. Not covered by Act
d. Required for preservation
38. Microbiological counts refer to:
a. Chemical additives
b. Bacterial and microbial presence levels
c. Packaging materials
d. Food pricing data
39. Excess residues in food are:
a. Always acceptable
b. Prohibited under regulations
c. Ignored in domestic food
d. Only checked in exports
40. The main objective of Section 21 is:
a. Promote pesticide use
b. Control harmful residues in food
c. Increase food production
d. Reduce inspections
41. Under Section 22, which of the following requires compliance with Act and regulations?
a. Only local street food
b. Novel foods and genetically modified foods
c. Only water
d. Only raw vegetables
42. Genetically modified food means:
a. Food made only from animals
b. Food containing or produced from genetically modified organisms
c. Food without processing
d. Organic food only
43. Organic food is defined as food:
a. Produced using chemical fertilizers
b. Produced in accordance with specified organic production standards
c. Imported only
d. Packaged only
44. Functional foods and nutraceuticals are:
a. Medicines under Drugs Act only
b. Foods for special dietary uses with specific composition
c. Illegal substances
d. Only animal feed
45. Health supplements may include:
a. Only sugar products
b. Vitamins, minerals, proteins within permissible limits
c. Alcohol products
d. Tobacco products
46. Nutraceuticals cannot:
a. Be sold as food
b. Be formulated for oral administration
c. Contain nutrients
d. Be labelled as dietary products
47. Functional foods must not:
a. Be orally administered
b. Claim to cure or mitigate diseases (except permitted claims)
c. Contain vitamins
d. Be processed
48. Genetically engineered food includes:
a. Only organic crops
b. Food containing or produced from GM organisms
c. Only animal milk
d. Only natural fruits
49. Organic food is produced:
a. Randomly
b. Under specified organic production standards
c. Using pesticides freely
d. Without regulation
50. Proprietary food means:
a. Food with fixed global standards
b. Food for which standards are not specified but is not unsafe
c. Always unsafe food
d. Only imported food
51. Proprietary food must:
a. Always be medicinal
b. Not contain prohibited ingredients under Act
c. Be unregulated completely
d. Be radioactive
52. Which of the following is included in functional foods ingredients?
a. Metals and vitamins within limits
b. Toxic chemicals
c. Alcohol only
d. Narcotic substances
53. Nutraceutical products are generally:
a. Injectable drugs
b. Oral dosage forms like capsules and tablets
c. Surgical implants
d. Veterinary medicines only
54. Functional foods exclude:
a. Drugs and Ayurvedic medicines under Drugs Act
b. Fruits and vegetables
c. Water
d. Milk products
55. Section 22 primarily regulates:
a. Food safety standards for special categories of food
b. Taxation on food
c. Transportation of goods
d. Agriculture subsidies
56. Packaged food products must be labelled in accordance with:
a. Market trends
b. Regulations specified under the Act
c. Seller preference
d. Export demand only
57. Sale of packaged food is prohibited if:
a. It is unbranded
b. It is not marked and labelled as per regulations
c. It is organic
d. It is homemade
58. Food labels must not contain:
a. Nutritional information
b. False or misleading statements
c. Brand name
d. Manufacturing date
59. Labels must avoid misleading claims about:
a. Quantity and nutritive value
b. Packaging colour only
c. Price only
d. Store location only
60. Medicinal or therapeutic claims on food labels are:
a. Always allowed
b. Prohibited if misleading or not permitted
c. Mandatory
d. Encouraged
61. Labelling rules apply to:
a. Only imported food
b. Packaged food products
c. Only raw food
d. Only street food
62. Food business operators must ensure:
a. High pricing
b. Non-misleading labelling and presentation
c. Faster delivery only
d. Export certification only
63. Packaging and presentation include:
a. Only colour of packet
b. Shape, appearance and arrangement
c. Only weight
d. Only price tag
64. Consumer information about food must:
a. Be hidden
b. Not mislead consumers
c. Be partial
d. Be promotional only
65. Food information displayed through any medium must:
a. Be promotional only
b. Not mislead consumers
c. Be secret
d. Be optional
66. Misleading labelling may relate to:
a. Only transport
b. Origin of food products
c. Banking details
d. Taxation
67. Labelling includes:
a. Only written text on packet
b. All forms of presentation and display
c. Only advertisements
d. Only invoices
68. Responsibility for correct labelling lies with:
a. Consumers
b. Food business operator
c. Police
d. Courts
69. Packaging materials must:
a. Be unsafe if cheap
b. Not contribute to misleading consumers
c. Be unregulated
d. Be transparent only
70. Main objective of Section 23 is:
a. Increase food marketing
b. Prevent consumer deception through labelling and packaging
c. Promote export branding
d. Reduce packaging costs
71. Advertisements of food under the Act must not be:
a. Attractive
b. Misleading or deceiving
c. Informative
d. Digital
72. Food advertisements must comply with:
a. Personal opinion
b. Provisions of the Act, rules and regulations
c. Social media trends
d. Export policies only
73. Unfair trade practices include:
a. Honest pricing
b. Deceptive practices promoting food sales
c. Proper labelling
d. Quality certification
74. A false representation of food may relate to:
a. Weather conditions
b. Standard, quality, quantity or grade
c. Store location
d. Packaging colour only
75. Misleading representation can also concern:
a. Need for or usefulness of food
b. Transport method
c. Employee salary
d. Tax rates
76. Guarantee of efficacy in food claims must be:
a. Based on adequate or scientific justification
b. Based on marketing strategy only
c. Based on opinion only
d. Unverified
77. If scientific justification is claimed as defence:
a. No proof is required
b. Burden of proof lies on the person making the claim
c. Government must prove it
d. Consumers must prove it
78. Prohibited advertisements include those:
a. That increase awareness
b. That mislead or deceive consumers
c. That show ingredients
d. That mention price
79. Unfair trade practices apply to:
a. Only manufacturers
b. Anyone promoting sale, supply or consumption of food
c. Only exporters
d. Only retailers
80. False claims about food include:
a. Accurate nutritional facts
b. Incorrect quality or grade representation
c. Proper certifications
d. Ingredient listing
81. The Act prohibits practices that are:
a. Transparent
b. Deceptive or unfair
c. Regulated
d. Certified
82. Burden of proof in scientific justification lies on:
a. Government
b. Person making the claim
c. Courts
d. Consumers
83. Advertisement rules aim to protect:
a. Industry profits
b. Consumers from misleading information
c. Export markets
d. Tax revenue
84. Food promotion practices must be:
a. Unverified
b. Fair and non-deceptive
c. Secret
d. Random
85. Main objective of Section 24 is:
a. Promote food advertising
b. Prevent misleading advertisements and unfair trade practices
c. Control food prices
d. Increase exports
86. Under Section 25, import into India is prohibited for:
a. Only organic food
b. Unsafe, misbranded or sub-standard food
c. Only packaged food
d. Only fresh fruits
87. Imported food cannot contain:
a. Natural ingredients
b. Extraneous matter if prohibited
c. Nutrients
d. Vitamins
88. Food requiring an import licence must be imported:
a. Without conditions
b. Only in accordance with licence conditions
c. Without approval
d. Through informal channels
89. Import of food must comply with:
a. Only exporter rules
b. This Act and related rules/regulations
c. Only customs preference
d. Only trade policy
90. Any food imported in contravention of the Act is:
a. Allowed with fine
b. Prohibited
c. Encouraged
d. Ignored
91. The Central Government must follow standards laid down by:
a. Private companies
b. Food Authority
c. Importers
d. Farmers
92. Import regulation under Foreign Trade Act must align with:
a. Industry standards
b. Food Authority standards
c. Local market prices
d. Retail policies
93. Misbranded food import is:
a. Permitted
b. Not allowed
c. Optional for inspection
d. Encouraged
94. Sub-standard imported food is:
a. Allowed with declaration
b. Prohibited
c. Tax free
d. Not regulated
95. Extraneous matter in imported food is:
a. Always permitted
b. Prohibited if not allowed under standards
c. Ignored
d. Mandatory
96. Import licence conditions must be:
a. Ignored if convenient
b. Strictly followed
c. Optional
d. Modified by importer
97. Regulation of imported food ensures:
a. Trade expansion only
b. Food safety and compliance with standards
c. Reduced inspections
d. Lower taxes
98. Foreign Trade regulations must consider:
a. Food Authority standards
b. Political decisions only
c. Exporters only
d. Retailers only
99. Section 25 applies to:
a. Domestic food only
b. Imported food articles
c. Only restaurants
d. Only farmers
100. The main objective of Section 25 is:
a. Promote imports
b. Ensure only safe and compliant food is imported
c. Reduce customs duty
d. Increase exports
101. A Food Business Operator (FBO) must ensure compliance with the Act at:
a. Only production stage
b. All stages of production, processing, import, distribution and sale
c. Only retail stage
d. Only export stage
102. An FBO is prohibited from manufacturing or selling:
a. Organic food
b. Unsafe food
c. Packaged food
d. Fresh vegetables
103. Misbranded or sub-standard food under FBO responsibility is:
a. Allowed in small quantities
b. Prohibited
c. Exempted from regulation
d. Encouraged
104. Food requiring licence must be handled:
a. Without conditions
b. Only in accordance with licence conditions
c. Only by exporters
d. Without approval
105. Food prohibited by government or Food Authority:
a. Can be sold freely
b. Cannot be manufactured, stored, sold or distributed
c. Can be exported only
d. Can be relabelled
106. FBO cannot employ persons suffering from:
a. Minor illness
b. Infectious, contagious or loathsome diseases
c. Seasonal cold
d. Allergies
107. Before selling food to a vendor, FBO must provide:
a. Advertisement
b. Written guarantee of nature and quality
c. Tax invoice only
d. Oral assurance only
108. A bill or invoice given by FBO is treated as:
a. Advertisement
b. Guarantee under Section 26
c. Licence document
d. Inspection report
109. If unsafe food is found in a batch, it is presumed that:
a. Only one item is unsafe
b. Entire batch is unsafe unless proven otherwise
c. Only imported portion is unsafe
d. No presumption applies
110. The presumption of unsafe food applies to:
a. Single packets only
b. Entire batch, lot or consignment
c. Only retail sales
d. Only exports
111. FBO responsibility includes:
a. Ignoring regulations if quality is good
b. Ensuring food safety at all stages under their control
c. Only packaging control
d. Only pricing control
112. A food business operator cannot sell food that is:
a. Certified organic
b. Unsafe or misbranded or sub-standard
c. Properly labelled
d. Freshly prepared
113. Even if food complies with standards, authorities may:
a. Ignore safety concerns
b. Restrict or withdraw food if it is suspected unsafe
c. Promote sale
d. Reduce inspections
114. Food conformity with standards:
a. Prevents all regulatory action
b. Does not prevent authorities from taking safety measures if needed
c. Removes liability of FBO
d. Ends inspection requirement
115. Main objective of Section 26 is:
a. Promote food trade
b. Fix responsibility of food safety on food business operators
c. Reduce licensing
d. Increase exports
116. The manufacturer or packer is liable if food:
a. Is exported successfully
b. Does not meet requirements of the Act and regulations
c. Is organically certified
d. Is locally produced
117. A wholesaler is liable if food is:
a. Freshly manufactured
b. Supplied after expiry date
c. Properly labelled
d. Properly stored
118. A distributor is liable for:
a. Only marketing issues
b. Unsafe or misbranded food
c. Only pricing errors
d. Only packaging design
119. Wholesaler liability includes food:
a. Stored as per safety instructions
b. Stored or supplied violating safety instructions
c. Imported legally
d. Properly sealed
120. A wholesaler is liable if food is:
a. Branded correctly
b. Unidentifiable from manufacturer
c. Certified safe
d. Organic
121. Wholesaler liability includes food:
a. Stored under refrigeration
b. Stored or handled in violation of Act
c. Sold at discount
d. Packaged properly
122. Seller is liable if food is:
a. Sold before expiry
b. Sold after expiry date
c. Properly labelled
d. Freshly cooked
123. Seller liability includes food kept in:
a. Hygienic conditions
b. Unhygienic conditions
c. Cold storage
d. Licensed premises
124. Misbranded food liability applies to:
a. Manufacturer only
b. Seller as well
c. Government only
d. Consumers
125. Wholesaler is liable if food is:
a. Received with knowledge it is unsafe
b. Certified by authority
c. Properly documented
d. Freshly packed
126. Seller is liable if food is:
a. Approved by FSSAI
b. Received with knowledge of being unsafe
c. Properly labelled
d. Imported legally
127. Manufacturer liability applies to:
a. Only exported food
b. Any food not meeting legal requirements
c. Only retail food
d. Only stored food
128. Wholesaler liability includes:
a. Only production errors
b. Failure to identify manufacturer
c. Consumer misuse
d. Agricultural issues
129. Seller liability includes:
a. Only advertising issues
b. Misbranded food sale
c. Export licensing
d. Tax compliance
130. Main objective of Section 27 is:
a. Define pricing rules
b. Fix liability across food supply chain
c. Promote exports
d. Reduce inspections
131. A food business operator must initiate food recall when:
a. Food price increases
b. Food is not in compliance with the Act or regulations
c. Food is in high demand
d. Food is locally produced
132. Food recall involves:
a. Increasing advertisement
b. Withdrawal of food from market and consumers
c. Exporting food
d. Repackaging food only
133. During food recall, FBO must:
a. Hide the issue
b. Inform competent authorities
c. Continue sales
d. Reduce prices only
134. If food may be unsafe, FBO must:
a. Ignore suspicion
b. Immediately inform competent authorities
c. Wait for inspection report
d. Sell quickly
135. FBO is required to:
a. Avoid cooperation with authorities
b. Cooperate with competent authorities
c. Delay response
d. Shift liability to consumers
136. Food recall information must include:
a. Advertising strategy
b. Reasons for withdrawal
c. Profit margins
d. Export data