Download The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 MCQs Set-3 PDF
1. A permit under Section 28 may be granted:
a. Without application
b. On application
c. Only through court order
d. By village panchayat
2. A permit may be granted for investigation or study of:
a. Minerals
b. Wild life
c. Revenue records
d. Municipal laws
3. Which of the following is a valid purpose for permit under Section 28?
a. Photography
b. Scientific research
c. Tourism
d. All of the above
4. Permit under Section 28 may also be granted for:
a. Hunting for trade
b. Transaction of lawful business with residents of sanctuary
c. Mining operations
d. Commercial deforestation
5. Purposes ancillary or incidental to investigation or study of wildlife are:
a. Included under Section 28
b. Prohibited absolutely
c. Punishable offences
d. Outside the Act
6. A permit to enter sanctuary shall be subject to:
a. Conditions prescribed
b. Payment of prescribed fee
c. Both A and B
d. No restrictions
7. The fee for permit under Section 28 is:
a. Fixed by Parliament only
b. Prescribed under the Act
c. Determined by village panchayat
d. Not required
8. Section 28 mainly regulates:
a. Entry and residence in sanctuary through permits
b. Acquisition of land
c. Constitution of National Board
d. Trade in specified plants
9. Section 29 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Grant of permit
b. Destruction, etc., in a sanctuary prohibited without permit
c. Acquisition proceedings
d. Constitution of Boards
10. Under Section 29, no person shall destroy, exploit or remove:
a. Forest produce only
b. Wild life including forest produce from sanctuary
c. Agricultural crops only
d. Minerals only
11. Which of the following acts is prohibited under Section 29?
a. Destroying habitat of wild animals
b. Damaging habitat of wild animals
c. Diverting flow of water into or outside sanctuary
d. All of the above
12. Acts prohibited under Section 29 may be done only:
a. By oral permission
b. Under and in accordance with permit granted by Chief Wild Life Warden
c. By village resolution
d. By private agreement
13. Before grant of permit under Section 29, the State Government must consult:
a. Supreme Court
b. National Board only
c. The Board
d. Election Commission
14. Permit under Section 29 may be authorised only if necessary for:
a. Commercial exploitation
b. Improvement and better management of wildlife
c. Industrial development
d. Urbanisation
15. Forest produce removed from sanctuary may be used for:
a. Commercial export
b. Personal bona fide needs of people living in and around sanctuary
c. Industrial manufacture only
d. Foreign trade only
16. Forest produce removed from sanctuary shall not be used for:
a. Personal use
b. Scientific research
c. Commercial purpose
d. Conservation activities
17. Under the Explanation to Section 29, grazing or movement of livestock permitted under Section 33(d):
a. Is prohibited
b. Is deemed an offence
c. Is not deemed to be prohibited act
d. Requires Supreme Court approval
18. Section 29 mainly aims at:
a. Protection of sanctuary and wildlife habitat
b. Promotion of commercial forestry
c. Expansion of mining
d. Industrial growth in sanctuary
19. Section 30 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Ban on chemicals
b. Causing fire prohibited
c. Entry with weapons
d. Tourism permits
20. Under Section 30, no person shall:
a. Set fire to a sanctuary
b. Kindle any fire in sanctuary
c. Leave fire burning so as to endanger sanctuary
d. All of the above
21. Fire in sanctuary is prohibited when it:
a. Is used for cooking only
b. Endangers the sanctuary
c. Is lit during daytime
d. Is approved by villagers
22. Section 31 deals with:
a. Hunting permits
b. Prohibition of entry into sanctuary with weapon
c. Trade in plants
d. Acquisition proceedings
23. No person shall enter sanctuary with any weapon except with:
a. Oral permission of forest guard
b. Previous written permission of Chief Wild Life Warden or authorised officer
c. Approval of villagers
d. Permission of tourists
24. Permission under Section 31 must be:
a. Oral
b. Implied
c. In writing
d. By newspaper notice
25. Section 32 prohibits use in sanctuary of:
a. Chemicals
b. Explosives
c. Other injurious substances
d. All of the above
26. Under Section 32, prohibited substances are those which may:
a. Cause injury to wildlife
b. Endanger wildlife
c. Both A and B
d. Improve habitat only
27. Which authority may grant written permission for entry with weapon into sanctuary?
a. Chief Wild Life Warden
b. Authorised officer
c. Both A and B
d. State Legislature
28. Sections 30 to 32 mainly aim at:
a. Protection and safety of sanctuary and wildlife
b. Promotion of industrial activity
c. Commercial exploitation of forests
d. Expansion of mining operations
29. Section 33 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Control of sanctuaries
b. Hunting permits
c. Trade in plants
d. Acquisition proceedings
30. The authority responsible for control, management and maintenance of sanctuaries is:
a. District Magistrate
b. Chief Wild Life Warden
c. National Board
d. State Legislature
31. Under Section 33(a), the Chief Wild Life Warden may construct:
a. Roads and bridges
b. Buildings and fences
c. Barrier gates
d. All of the above
32. Construction under Section 33(a) must be for purposes of:
a. Industrial development
b. Sanctuary management
c. Mining operations
d. Urban expansion
33. Commercial tourist lodges, hotels, zoos and safari parks inside sanctuary require prior approval of:
a. State Board
b. National Board
c. District Collector
d. Police Department
34. Under Section 33(b), the Chief Wild Life Warden shall ensure:
a. Security of wild animals
b. Preservation of sanctuary
c. Preservation of wild animals therein
d. All of the above
35. The Chief Wild Life Warden may take measures for:
a. Improvement of habitat in interests of wildlife
b. Commercial exploitation of forests
c. Urbanisation of sanctuary
d. Mining development
36. Under Section 33(d), grazing or movement of livestock may be:
a. Freely allowed without control
b. Regulated, controlled or prohibited
c. Encouraged for commercial use
d. Managed only by villagers
37. Regulation of livestock grazing under Section 33(d) must be:
a. In keeping with interests of wildlife
b. For commercial profit
c. For industrial use
d. For tourism only
38. Section 33 mainly aims at:
a. Effective management and protection of sanctuaries
b. Promotion of industrial projects
c. Expansion of tourism without restriction
d. Revenue collection only
39. Section 33A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Immunisation of live-stock
b. Hunting permits
c. Trade in plants
d. Acquisition proceedings
40. The Chief Wild Life Warden shall take measures for immunisation of livestock against:
a. Nutritional deficiency
b. Communicable diseases
c. Old age diseases only
d. Genetic disorders only
41. Immunisation measures under Section 33A apply to livestock kept:
a. Anywhere in India
b. In or within five kilometres of a sanctuary
c. Only inside reserve forests
d. Only in villages
42. No person shall take or graze livestock in sanctuary without:
a. Police permission
b. Immunisation of livestock
c. Tourism permit
d. Panchayat approval
43. Section 33B provides for constitution of:
a. National Board
b. Advisory Committee
c. Standing Committee
d. Forest Tribunal
44. The Advisory Committee under Section 33B is headed by:
a. Chief Minister
b. Chief Wild Life Warden or his nominee not below Conservator of Forests
c. District Magistrate
d. Prime Minister
45. The Advisory Committee includes:
a. Member of State Legislature of concerned constituency
b. Representatives of Panchayati Raj Institutions
c. Representatives of NGOs
d. All of the above
46. The officer-in-charge of the sanctuary acts as:
a. Chairperson
b. Treasurer
c. Member-Secretary
d. Vice-Chairperson
47. The Advisory Committee renders advice regarding:
a. Better conservation and management of sanctuary
b. Participation of people living within and around sanctuary
c. Both A and B
d. Industrial development
48. Under Section 33B(3), the Advisory Committee shall:
a. Follow only Central Government procedure
b. Regulate its own procedure including quorum
c. Meet only once in five years
d. Function without quorum
49. Section 34 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Registration of certain persons in possession of arms
b. Hunting permits
c. Trade in plants
d. Acquisition proceedings
50. Every person residing in or within _______ of a sanctuary and possessing arms must apply for registration.
a. Two kilometres
b. Five kilometres
c. Ten kilometres
d. Twenty kilometres
51. Application for registration under Section 34 must be made within:
a. One month from declaration of sanctuary
b. Three months from declaration of sanctuary
c. Six months from declaration of sanctuary
d. One year from declaration of sanctuary
52. Registration under Section 34 applies to persons holding licence under:
a. Indian Forest Act, 1927
b. Arms Act, 1959
c. Environment Protection Act, 1986
d. Indian Penal Code, 1860
53. Persons exempted from the Arms Act but possessing arms are:
a. Excluded from Section 34
b. Also required to apply for registration
c. Automatically punished
d. Required to surrender arms only
54. Application for registration is made to:
a. District Magistrate only
b. Chief Wild Life Warden or authorised officer
c. National Board
d. Police Commissioner only
55. The application under Section 34 shall be made:
a. Without fee
b. In prescribed form and prescribed fee
c. Orally only
d. Through court only
56. On receipt of application, the Chief Wild Life Warden or authorised officer shall:
a. Reject every application
b. Register the applicant’s name in prescribed manner
c. Confiscate all arms automatically
d. Refer matter to Parliament
57. No new licence under the Arms Act, 1959 shall be granted within ten kilometres of sanctuary without:
a. Approval of District Collector
b. Prior concurrence of Chief Wild Life Warden
c. Permission of Panchayat
d. Approval of tourists
58. Section 34 mainly aims at:
a. Regulating possession of arms near sanctuaries
b. Promoting hunting activities
c. Expanding commercial trade in arms
d. Encouraging tourism
59. Section 35 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Declaration of National Parks
b. Registration of arms
c. Trade in plants
d. Hunting permits
60. The State Government may declare its intention to constitute an area as a National Park when it is needed for:
a. Industrial development
b. Protecting, propagating or developing wildlife or its environment
c. Mining purposes
d. Urban expansion
61. An area may be constituted as a National Park because of its:
a. Ecological importance
b. Faunal or floral importance
c. Geomorphological or zoological importance
d. All of the above
62. A National Park under Section 35 may be constituted:
a. Only within sanctuary
b. Only outside sanctuary
c. Whether within a sanctuary or not
d. Only in reserve forests
63. Declaration of intention to constitute National Park is made by:
a. Court order
b. Notification by State Government
c. Panchayat resolution
d. Parliamentary enactment only
64. Where territorial waters are proposed to be included in a National Park, provisions of which section apply?
a. Section 18
b. Section 21
c. Section 26A
d. Section 34
65. The provisions of Section 26A apply to National Parks:
a. Fully without modification
b. As far as may be
c. Only with court approval
d. Not at all
66. The notification under Section 35(1) shall:
a. Impose criminal penalties only
b. Define limits of intended National Park area
c. Declare hunting season
d. Appoint officers
67. Territorial waters may be included in a National Park:
a. Without restrictions
b. Subject to provisions applicable under Section 26A
c. Only by Parliament
d. Only after referendum
68. Section 35 primarily focuses on:
a. Constitution and declaration of National Parks
b. Trade regulation
c. Arms registration
d. Revenue administration
69. Under Section 35(3), provisions of Sections 19 to 26A apply to:
a. Investigation and determination of claims in National Parks
b. Tax assessment only
c. Criminal trials only
d. Tourism management
70. Which provision of Section 24 is excluded from application under Section 35(3)?
a. Section 24(1)
b. Clause (a) of Section 24(2)
c. Clause (c) of Section 24(2)
d. Entire Section 24
71. A National Park is finally declared after:
a. Disposal of claims and vesting of rights in State Government
b. Approval by Panchayat only
c. Completion of census only
d. Court decree only
72. Under Section 35(4), the State Government shall publish:
a. Criminal notification
b. Notification specifying limits of National Park
c. Tax notification
d. Election notification
73. Boundaries of a National Park can be altered only on recommendation of:
a. State Board
b. National Board
c. District Collector
d. Police Department
74. Under Section 35(6), no person shall destroy, exploit or remove wildlife from National Park except:
a. With oral permission
b. Under permit granted by Chief Wild Life Warden
c. By village approval
d. During daytime only
75. Permit under Section 35(6) may be granted only if necessary for:
a. Commercial tourism
b. Improvement and better management of wildlife
c. Mining operations
d. Industrial development
76. Forest produce removed from National Park may be used for:
a. Commercial export
b. Personal bona fide needs of people living in and around National Park
c. Industrial manufacture
d. Foreign trade
77. Under Section 35(7), grazing of livestock in a National Park:
a. Is freely allowed
b. Is completely prohibited except authorised vehicle use
c. Is compulsory
d. Requires Panchayat approval only
78. Sections 27, 28, 30 to 32 and parts of Sections 33 and 33A apply to National Parks:
a. Fully without modification
b. As far as may be
c. Only after court order
d. Not at all
79. Section 36A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Declaration and management of conservation reserve
b. Hunting permits
c. Registration of arms
d. Trade in plants
80. The State Government may declare a conservation reserve after:
a. Approval of Supreme Court
b. Consultation with local communities
c. Election notification
d. Approval of tourists
81. A conservation reserve may be declared for protecting:
a. Landscapes and seascapes
b. Flora and fauna
c. Their habitat
d. All of the above
82. Conservation reserves are particularly declared in areas:
a. Adjacent to National Parks and sanctuaries
b. Linking one protected area with another
c. Both A and B
d. Only urban areas
83. A conservation reserve may be declared only over:
a. Privately owned land
b. Government-owned area
c. Agricultural land only
d. Industrial land only
84. If conservation reserve includes land owned by Central Government, prior concurrence of:
a. National Board
b. Central Government
c. State Legislature
d. Panchayat
85. Which provisions apply to conservation reserve as far as may be?
a. Section 18(2)
b. Sections 30 and 32
c. Clauses (b) and (c) of Section 33
d. All of the above
86. Sub-sections (2), (3) and (4) of Section 27 apply to conservation reserve in relation to:
a. Sanctuary provisions
b. National Board only
c. Hunting permits only
d. Trade in plants
87. Conservation reserves help in:
a. Linking protected areas
b. Protecting wildlife habitat
c. Conservation of flora and fauna
d. All of the above
88. Section 36A mainly focuses on:
a. Conservation reserve declaration and management
b. Industrial development
c. Commercial tourism
d. Revenue collection
89. Section 36B of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Conservation reserve management committee
b. Hunting permits
c. Registration of arms
d. Acquisition proceedings
90. The State Government shall constitute a committee under Section 36B to:
a. Conduct criminal trials
b. Advise the Chief Wild Life Warden
c. Grant hunting licences
d. Collect taxes
91. The purpose of the conservation reserve management committee is to:
a. Conserve, manage and maintain conservation reserve
b. Promote industrial activities
c. Conduct elections
d. Manage tourism only
92. The Member-Secretary of the committee shall be:
a. District Magistrate
b. Representative of Forest or Wild Life Department
c. Chief Minister
d. Village Sarpanch
93. The committee shall include:
a. One representative of each Village Panchayat within reserve jurisdiction
b. Representatives of NGOs working in wildlife conservation
c. Representatives from Agriculture and Animal Husbandry Departments
d. All of the above
94. How many representatives of non-governmental organisations are included in the committee?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five
95. The committee includes one representative each from:
a. Agriculture Department
b. Animal Husbandry Department
c. Both A and B
d. Tourism Department only
96. Village Panchayat representatives in the committee are from Panchayats:
a. Across the State
b. In whose jurisdiction the reserve is located
c. Selected by Parliament
d. From urban municipalities only
97. Under Section 36B(3), the committee shall regulate:
a. Wildlife census only
b. Its own procedure including quorum
c. State Government policies only
d. Criminal investigations
98. Section 36B mainly provides for:
a. Management structure for conservation reserves
b. Hunting regulation
c. Trade in wildlife
d. Revenue administration
99. Section 36C of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Community reserve declaration and management
b. Hunting permits
c. Registration of arms
d. Acquisition proceedings
100. The State Government may declare a community reserve where:
a. Community or individual volunteers to conserve wildlife and habitat
b. Mining companies apply for licence
c. Industrial projects are proposed
d. Tourism companies demand it
101. A community reserve may be declared over:
a. Private or community land
b. National Park land only
c. Reserve forest only
d. Government office land only
102. Community reserve land must not be comprised within:
a. National Park
b. Sanctuary
c. Conservation reserve
d. All of the above
103. Community reserves are declared for protecting:
a. Fauna and flora
b. Traditional or cultural conservation values
c. Conservation practices
d. All of the above
104. Which provisions apply to community reserves as far as may be?
a. Section 18(2)
b. Sections 30 and 32
c. Clauses (b) and (c) of Section 33
d. All of the above
105. After notification under Section 36C(1), change in land use pattern:
a. Is freely permitted
b. Is completely prohibited in all cases
c. Requires resolution of management committee and State Government approval
d. Requires approval of Panchayat only
106. The management committee plays role in:
a. Passing resolution for land use change
b. Declaring National Parks
c. Granting hunting licences
d. Criminal investigation only
107. State Government approval is necessary for:
a. Wildlife census only
b. Any change in land use pattern within community reserve
c. Tourism visits only
d. Agricultural loans
108. Section 36C mainly promotes:
a. Community participation in wildlife conservation
b. Commercial exploitation of forests
c. Industrial development
d. Expansion of urban areas
109. Section 36D of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Community reserve management committee
b. Hunting permits
c. Registration of arms
d. National Parks
110. The State Government shall constitute a Community Reserve management committee for:
a. Revenue collection
b. Conserving, maintaining and managing the community reserve
c. Industrial development
d. Tourism promotion only
111. The Community Reserve management committee is:
a. Advisory body only
b. Authority responsible for management of community reserve
c. Judicial authority
d. Police authority
112. The committee shall consist of:
a. Five representatives nominated by Village Panchayat or Gram Sabha
b. One representative of State Forest or Wild Life Department
c. Both A and B
d. Members of Parliament only
113. Where Village Panchayat does not exist, representatives are nominated by:
a. District Collector
b. Gram Sabha members
c. State Legislature
d. National Board
114. The representative of State Forest or Wild Life Department shall belong to the jurisdiction where:
a. National Park is situated
b. Community reserve is located
c. State capital exists
d. Tourism area exists
115. The committee is competent to:
a. Prepare management plan for community reserve
b. Implement management plan
c. Ensure protection of wildlife and habitat
d. All of the above
116. The Chairman of the committee shall also be:
a. Chief Wild Life Warden
b. Honorary Wild Life Warden on the community reserve
c. District Magistrate
d. Conservator of Forests
117. The Chairman of the committee is:
a. Appointed by Central Government
b. Elected by the committee
c. Appointed by Supreme Court
d. Nominated by Parliament
118. Under Section 36D(5), the committee shall regulate:
a. Wildlife census only
b. Its own procedure including quorum
c. State Government rules only
d. Criminal proceedings
119. Section 38 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Power of Central Government to declare sanctuaries or National Parks
b. Registration of arms
c. Trade in specified plants
d. Hunting permits
120. The Central Government may declare an area as a sanctuary when:
a. Area is transferred by State Government to Central Government
b. Area is within an existing sanctuary only
c. Parliament passes special law
d. Gram Sabha approves it
121. The area transferred to the Central Government under Section 38 must:
a. Already be a National Park
b. Not be within a sanctuary
c. Be private land only
d. Be urban land
122. Before declaring an area as sanctuary under Section 38(1), the Central Government must be satisfied that conditions of which section are fulfilled?
a. Section 11
b. Section 18
c. Section 29
d. Section 35
123. The provisions applicable to a sanctuary declared by Central Government include:
a. Sections 18 to 35
b. Sections 54 and 55
c. Both A and B
d. Section 9 only
124. Under Section 38(2), the Central Government may declare an area as a National Park if conditions of which section are fulfilled?
a. Section 18
b. Section 27
c. Section 35
d. Section 54
125. An area may be declared as a National Park by the Central Government:
a. Only if already declared sanctuary
b. Whether or not declared sanctuary earlier
c. Only after court order
d. Only by Parliament
126. In relation to sanctuary or National Park declared by Central Government, powers of Chief Wild Life Warden are exercised by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Director or authorised officer
c. District Magistrate
d. State Legislature
127. In Sections referred to under Section 38, references to State Government shall be construed as references to:
a. Gram Sabha
b. Parliament
c. Central Government
d. National Board
128. References to Legislature of the State in relation to Central Government declared sanctuaries or National Parks shall be construed as references to:
a. Supreme Court
b. Parliament
c. National Board
d. State Board
129. Section 38A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Constitution of Central Zoo Authority
b. Declaration of sanctuaries
c. Hunting permits
d. Registration of arms
130. The Central Government shall constitute a body known as:
a. National Forest Authority
b. Central Zoo Authority
c. Wildlife Tribunal
d. Animal Protection Council
131. The Central Zoo Authority is constituted to:
a. Conduct criminal trials
b. Exercise powers and perform functions under the Act
c. Collect taxes
d. Regulate elections
132. The Central Zoo Authority is referred to in the Chapter as:
a. The Board
b. The Authority
c. The Commission
d. The Tribunal
133. The Central Zoo Authority shall consist of:
a. Chairperson
b. Members
c. Member-Secretary
d. All of the above
134. The number of members of the Central Zoo Authority shall:
a. Exceed twenty
b. Not exceed ten
c. Be exactly fifteen
d. Be unlimited
135. The Chairperson of the Central Zoo Authority is appointed by:
a. Supreme Court
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. National Board
136. The members of the Central Zoo Authority are appointed by:
a. Gram Sabha
b. Parliament
c. Central Government
d. State Board
137. The Member-Secretary of the Central Zoo Authority is appointed by:
a. Chief Minister
b. Central Government
c. District Collector
d. Panchayat
138. The primary object behind constitution of the Central Zoo Authority is:
a. Regulation of forests only
b. Exercising statutory powers and functions under the Act
c. Commercial tourism
d. Arms regulation
139. Section 38B of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Term of office and conditions of service of Chairperson and members
b. Declaration of sanctuaries
c. Hunting provisions
d. Trade in plants
140. The Chairperson and members (other than Member-Secretary) shall hold office for a period:
a. Not exceeding one year
b. Not exceeding two years
c. Not exceeding three years
d. Not exceeding five years
141. The term of office of Chairperson and members is specified by:
a. Supreme Court
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. Parliament
142. A Chairperson or member may resign by:
a. Oral communication
b. Writing under his hand addressed to Central Government
c. Court order
d. Panchayat resolution
143. Which of the following is NOT a ground for removal under Section 38B?
a. Becoming an undischarged insolvent
b. Conviction involving moral turpitude
c. Political disagreement with government
d. Becoming of unsound mind
144. A person may be removed if he is absent from how many consecutive meetings without leave?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five
145. Removal can be made if the person:
a. Refuses to act or becomes incapable of acting
b. Wins an award
c. Changes residence
d. Retires voluntarily
146. Removal on ground of abuse of position requires opinion of:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. State Government
Download The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 MCQs Set-3 PDF