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There are 7 Sets of MCQs available for Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, you are advised to explore all the sets :
1. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act bears which Act number?
a. Act No. 59 of 1985
b. Act No. 60 of 1985
c. Act No. 61 of 1985
d. Act No. 62 of 1985
2. The NDPS Act received the assent on which date?
a. 15th August, 1985
b. 16th September, 1985
c. 26th January, 1985
d. 1st October, 1985
3. The NDPS Act was enacted to consolidate and amend the law relating to:
a. Dangerous drugs only
b. Psychotropic substances only
c. Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
d. Habit-forming substances
4. Which of the following best reflects the nature of provisions introduced by the NDPS Act as per its preamble?
a. Liberal provisions
b. Reformative provisions
c. Stringent provisions
d. Temporary provisions
5. The NDPS Act seeks to control and regulate which of the following operations?
a. Manufacture only
b. Sale only
c. Operations relating to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
d. Consumption alone
6. The preamble relating to forfeiture of property was inserted to provide for:
a. Confiscation of personal belongings
b. Forfeiture of property derived from or used in illicit traffic
c. Seizure of agricultural land
d. Nationalisation of drug manufacturing units
7. The forfeiture provision under the NDPS Act is linked specifically to property:
a. Owned by accused persons
b. Acquired before commencement of the Act
c. Derived from or used in illicit traffic
d. Situated outside India
8. The NDPS Act also aims to implement provisions of:
a. Domestic criminal law reforms
b. SAARC conventions
c. International Conventions on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
d. WHO guidelines
9. The phrase “and for matters connected therewith” indicates that the Act:
a. Is limited to offences only
b. Covers only procedural law
c. Extends to ancillary and incidental matters
d. Applies only to Central Government authorities
10. The NDPS Act was enacted by Parliament in which year of the Republic of India?
a. Thirty-fourth year
b. Thirty-fifth year
c. Thirty-sixth year
d. Thirty-seventh year
11. The enacting clause of the NDPS Act begins with which phrase?
a. “Whereas it is expedient…”
b. “Be it enacted by the Parliament…”
c. “It is hereby declared…”
d. “Notwithstanding anything contained…”
12. The legislative authority responsible for enacting the NDPS Act is:
a. State Legislature
b. Constituent Assembly
c. Parliament of India
d. Ministry of Home Affairs
13. The short title of the Act as provided under Section 1(1) is:
a. The Narcotic Substances Act, 1985
b. The Narcotic Drugs Act, 1985
c. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
d. The Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
14. Section 1(1) of the NDPS Act deals with:
a. Extent of the Act
b. Commencement of the Act
c. Short title of the Act
d. Applicability of the Act
15. As per Section 1(2), the NDPS Act extends to:
a. Whole of India excluding Jammu & Kashmir
b. Whole of India
c. Whole of India and neighbouring countries
d. Whole of India subject to State adoption
16. In addition to extending to the whole of India, the NDPS Act also applies to:
a. Only Indian citizens residing abroad
b. Foreign nationals residing in India
c. Certain persons and conveyances outside India
d. Only offences committed within India
17. Clause (a) of the bracketed portion under Section 1(2) applies the Act to:
a. All residents of India
b. All citizens of India outside India
c. All foreign nationals outside India
d. Only diplomats outside India
18. Clause (b) of the bracketed portion under Section 1(2) applies the Act to:
a. All ships and aircrafts operating in India
b. All ships and aircrafts owned by Indian citizens
c. All ships and aircrafts registered in India, wherever they may be
d. Only commercial ships registered in India
19. The commencement of the NDPS Act under Section 1(3) is dependent upon:
a. Presidential assent
b. Parliamentary approval
c. Notification by the Central Government
d. Judicial declaration
20. The notification bringing the NDPS Act into force must be published in:
a. The Gazette of India
b. The Official Gazette
c. The Parliamentary Bulletin
d. The Law Commission Report
21. Section 1(3) empowers the Central Government to:
a. Bring the entire Act into force on a single date only
b. Appoint different dates for different provisions
c. Appoint different dates only for different States
d. Delegate commencement power to State Governments
22. A reference to the “commencement of this Act” in any provision shall be construed:
a. Uniformly for all States
b. As the date of Presidential assent
c. In relation to a State as the date that provision comes into force in that State
d. As the date of notification in the Gazette of India
23. What is the date of the commencement of the NDPS Act?
a. 14th November, 1985
b. 15th November, 1985
c. 16th November, 1986
d. 14th November, 1986
24. Section 2(i) defines an “addict” as:
a. A person who has dependence on any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance
b. Any person who has ever used a narcotic drug or psychotropic substance
c. A person possessing narcotic drugs for personal use
d. Any person under medical treatment for addiction
25. Section 2(ii) defines the “Board” as:
a. Narcotics Control Bureau
b. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
c. Central Board of Excise and Customs constituted under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, 1963
d. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
26. Section 2(iii) defines “cannabis (hemp)” to include:
a. Charas
b. Ganja
c. Any mixture or drink prepared therefrom
d. All of the above
27. Section 2(iv) defines “cannabis plant” as:
a. Any plant of the genus cannabis
b. Only plants used for producing ganja
c. Only plants used for producing charas
d. Any plant containing more than 0.1% THC
28. Section 2(iva) defines “Central Government factories” as:
a. Factories owned by the Central Government or companies with ≥51% govt shareholding
b. Only factories fully owned by the Central Government
c. Any private narcotic factory
d. Only factories under Ministry of Health
29. Section 2(v) defines “coca derivative” as:
a. Crude cocaine
b. Cocaine and its salts
c. Ecgonine derivatives
d. All of the above
30. Section 2(vi) defines “coca leaf” and excludes:
a. Mixtures with neutral material
b. Leaf containing >0.1% cocaine
c. Leaf with alkaloids removed
d. Extract usable for cocaine manufacture
31.Section 2(vi)(b) states that a coca leaf mixture containing not more than 0.1% cocaine is considered coca leaf. True or False?
a. True
b. False
32. Section 2(vii) defines “coca plant” as:
a. Plant of genus Erythroxylon
b. Any cocaine-producing plant
c. Only Indian coca plants
d. Commercial coca plants
33. Section 2(viia) defines “commercial quantity”:
a. Any quantity for profit
b. As notified by Central Government
c. Above 1 kg
d. Police-determined quantity
34. Section 2(viib) defines “controlled delivery”:
a. Allowing illicit consignments under supervision
b. Seizing drugs before entry
c. Courier delivery
d. Legal supply
35. Section 2(viic) defines “corresponding law”:
a. Customs-related law
b. Any law corresponding to this Act
c. Law after 1985
d. Pharma law
36. Section 2(viid) defines “controlled substance”:
a. Substance declared by Central Government
b. Any addictive substance
c. Plant derivative
d. Illicit narcotic
37. Section 2(viii) defines “conveyance”:
a. Any conveyance whatsoever (vehicle, aircraft, vessel)
b. Only trafficking vehicles
c. Only aircraft
d. Only interstate vehicles
38. Section 2(viiia) defines “essential narcotic drug”:
a. Recreational narcotics
b. Notified for medical/scientific use
c. Only opium/cocaine
d. All psychotropics
39. “Illicit traffic” includes:
a. Cultivation
b. Production & transport
c. Import/export
d. All of the above
40. Illicit traffic also includes:
a. Financing
b. Abetting
c. Harbouring
d. All of the above
41. NOT included in illicit traffic:
a. Permitted lawful activities
b. Harbouring offenders
c. Financing
d. Abetting
42. “International Convention” includes:
a. 1961 Convention
b. 1971 Convention
c. 1972 Protocol
d. All of the above
43. “Manufacture” includes:
a. Transformation
b. Refining
c. Preparation
d. All of the above
44. “Manufactured drug”:
a. Specified drugs (coca derivatives, opium derivatives etc.)
b. Govt-declared exclusions
c. Both A & B
d. Only medical narcotics
45. “Medicinal cannabis”:
a. Extract/tincture of cannabis
b. Only ganja
c. Recreational cannabis
d. Ayurvedic cannabis
46. “Narcotics Commissioner”:
a. Head of NCB
b. Officer under Section 5
c. Investigator
d. Committee chairman
47. “Narcotic drug”:
a. Coca leaf, cannabis, opium etc.
b. Only cannabis/opium
c. Only prohibited drugs
d. Psychotropics
48. “Opium”:
a. Coagulated juice
b. Only raw juice
c. Low morphine prep
d. B & C
49. “Opium derivative”:
a. Medicinal opium
b. Prepared opium
c. Alkaloids
d. All of the above
50. “Opium poppy”:
a. Papaver somniferum
b. Other notified species
c. Both
d. Cannabis plant
51. “Poppy straw”:
a. All parts except seeds
b. Only juice
c. Flowers
d. None
52. “Poppy straw concentrate”:
a. Concentrated alkaloid material
b. Seeds
c. Powdered opium
d. Stems
53. “Preparation”:
a. Mixture/solution
b. Dosage form
c. Both
d. Tablets only
54. “Prescribed”:
a. By rules under Act
b. Judiciary
c. Oral govt order
d. None
55. “Production”:
a. Separation from plant
b. Chemical transformation
c. Manufacturing
d. Export
56. “Psychotropic substance”:
a. Natural
b. Synthetic
c. Listed substances
d. All of the above
57. “Small quantity”:
a. Lesser than notified quantity
b. Greater quantity
c. Commercial use
d. >1kg
58. “Import inter-State”:
a. From one state to another
b. Into India
c. Export
d. Same state
59. “Import into India”:
a. From outside India
b. Includes transit entry
c. Both
d. Commercial import only
60. “Export from India”:
a. Taking outside India
b. Inter-state
c. Port export only
d. Personal export
61. “Export inter-State”:
a. One state to another
b. International export
c. Within state
d. Outside India
62. “Transport”:
a. Within same state
b. Inter-state only
c. Export
d. Import
63. “Use”:
a. Any use except personal consumption
b. Only personal
c. Only medical
d. Commercial
64. Undefined terms:
a. As per CrPC
b. Customs Act
c. Free interpretation
d. None
65. Percentage explanation:
a. 1g/ml per 100 units
b. Weight only
c. 1kg per 100L
d. Not prescribed
66. Govt may:
a. Prescribe new calculation basis
b. Fix single method
c. Delegate to police
d. Ignore
67. Section 3 of the NDPS Act deals with the power to:
a. Prohibit psychotropic substances
b. Regulate manufacture of psychotropic substances
c. Add to or omit from the list of psychotropic substances
d. Punish offences relating to psychotropic substances
68. The authority empowered under Section 3 to add or omit substances is:
a. Parliament
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. Drug Controller General of India
69. The exercise of power under Section 3 is conditional upon the Central Government being:
a. Directed by Parliament
b. Recommended by State Governments
c. Advised by the judiciary
d. Satisfied that it is necessary or expedient
70. The satisfaction required under Section 3 must be based on:
a. Specific factors enumerated in the section
b. Administrative convenience alone
c. Police reports only
d. Public opinion
71. Clause (a) of Section 3 requires consideration of information and evidence relating to:
a. Commercial use of the substance
b. Nature, effects, and abuse or scope for abuse of the substance
c. Price and availability of the substance
d. Medical prescription trends
72. Under Section 3(a), the substance whose nature and effects may be considered can be:
a. Only plant-based
b. Only synthetic
c. Either natural or synthetic
d. Only natural
73. Section 3(a) applies not only to substances but also to:
a. Chemical reagents used in laboratories
b. Raw agricultural produce
c. Finished pharmaceutical products only
d. Natural material, salts, or preparations
74. The expression “scope for abuse” under Section 3(a) relates to:
a. Economic misuse
b. Potential misuse leading to drug abuse
c. Regulatory loopholes
d. Industrial misuse
75. Clause (b) of Section 3 mandates consideration of:
a. Judicial precedents
b. Amendments in domestic criminal law
c. Recommendations of WHO
d. Modifications or provisions in International Conventions
76. The International Conventions referred to in Section 3(b) relate to:
a. Human rights
b. Maritime law
c. Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
d. Arms control
77. The power under Section 3 may be exercised where modifications or provisions have been made:
a. Only to bilateral treaties
b. By State Governments
c. To or in any International Convention
d. Only to Indian law
78. The Central Government may exercise power under Section 3 by:
a. Parliamentary amendment
b. Executive order
c. Judicial declaration
d. Notification in the Official Gazette
79. Section 4 of the NDPS Act primarily deals with:
a. Powers of State Governments
b. Measures to be taken by the Central Government
c. Powers of courts
d. Penalties for illicit traffic
80. The measures under Section 4(1) are to be taken by the Central Government:
a. Subject to the provisions of the Act
b. Independently of the Act
c. Subject to judicial directions
d. Subject to approval of State Governments
81. The purpose of measures under Section 4(1) includes:
a. Prevention of abuse only
b. Punishment of offenders
c. Combating illicit traffic only
d. Prevention of abuse and combating illicit traffic
82. Section 4(1) empowers the Central Government to take measures it deems:
a. Advisable
b. Economically feasible
c. Necessary or expedient
d. Mandatory
83. The bracketed portion of Section 4(1) additionally emphasizes ensuring:
a. Export of substances
b. Commercial availability
c. Private manufacture
d. Medical and scientific use
84. Section 4(2) begins with the expression:
a. “Provided that…”
b. “In particular and without prejudice to the generality…”
c. “Notwithstanding anything contained…”
d. “Subject to the approval of Parliament…”
85. The measures listed in Section 4(2) are:
a. Restrictive
b. Conditional
c. Illustrative
d. Exhaustive
86. Clause (a) of Section 4(2) relates to:
a. Training of judicial officers
b. Rehabilitation of addicts
c. Medical use of substances
d. Coordination of actions
87. Coordination under Section 4(2)(a) includes actions by:
a. Only Central officers
b. Officers, State Governments and other authorities
c. Only State Governments
d. International organisations only
88. Section 4(2)(a)(i) refers to coordination under:
a. International Conventions
b. The IPC
c. This Act
d. The CrPC
89. Section 4(2)(a)(ii) refers to coordination under:
a. Any other law for the time being in force connected with enforcement
b. Only NDPS Rules
c. Customs Act only
d. Foreign laws
90. Clause (b) of Section 4(2) specifically refers to:
a. Judicial cooperation
b. Medical research
c. State legislation
d. International Conventions obligations
91. Clause (c) of Section 4(2) provides for assistance to:
a. State Governments only
b. Domestic NGOs
c. Private hospitals
d. Foreign authorities and international organisations
92. The objective of assistance under Section 4(2)(c) is to facilitate:
a. Commercial trade
b. Bilateral treaties
c. Coordination and universal action
d. Judicial extradition
93. Clause (d) of Section 4(2) relates to:
a. Surveillance of addicts
b. Deportation of addicts
c. Punishment of addicts
d. Identification, treatment, rehabilitation and social re-integration of addicts
94. Clause (da) of Section 4(2) specifically deals with:
a. Licensing of manufacturers
b. Availability for medical and scientific use
c. Export of narcotic drugs
d. Destruction of seized drugs
95. Clause (e) of Section 4(2) empowers the Central Government regarding:
a. Matters expressly listed only
b. Matters approved by Parliament
c. Matters recommended by courts
d. Matters it deems necessary or expedient
96. Section 4(3) empowers the Central Government to constitute:
a. Special courts
b. Advisory committees
c. Drug control tribunals
d. An authority or hierarchy of authorities
97. The constitution of authorities under Section 4(3) must be done by:
a. Parliamentary enactment
b. Executive instruction
c. Judicial notification
d. Order published in the Official Gazette
98. Authorities constituted under Section 4(3) exercise powers:
a. Independently of the Central Government
b. Under State Government control
c. Subject to supervision and control of the Central Government
d. Under judicial supervision
99. The powers exercised by authorities under Section 4(3) are:
a. Inherent powers
b. Judicial powers
c. Legislative powers
d. Delegated powers of the Central Government
100. Section 5 of the NDPS Act deals with:
a. Officers of State Government
b. Officers of Central Government
c. Powers of courts
d. Constitution of special authorities
101. Section 5(1) begins with which qualifying phrase?
a. “Subject to the provisions of this Act”
b. “Provided that”
c. “Without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (3) of section 4”
d. “Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act”
102. Under Section 5(1), the Central Government shall appoint:
a. A Drug Controller
b. A Chief Inspector
c. A Director of Prosecution
d. A Narcotics Commissioner
103. Apart from the Narcotics Commissioner, the Central Government may appoint:
a. Officers recommended by State Governments
b. Only officers specified in the Act
c. Such other officers with such designations as it thinks fit
d. Officers with designations prescribed by Parliament
104. Officers appointed under Section 5(1) are appointed for the purposes of:
a. Criminal prosecution only
b. Regulation of medical drugs
c. This Act
d. International treaties
105. Section 5(2) primarily relates to the powers and functions of:
a. Central Government
b. Narcotics Commissioner
c. Board
d. State Government officers
106. The Narcotics Commissioner may exercise his powers under Section 5(2):
a. Only personally
b. Only with judicial approval
c. Only through State officers
d. Either by himself or through subordinate officers
107. The core function entrusted to the Narcotics Commissioner under Section 5(2) is:
a. Superintendence of drug trafficking investigations
b. Licensing of pharmaceutical companies
c. Superintendence of cultivation of opium poppy and production of opium
d. Destruction of seized narcotics
108. In addition to specified functions, the Narcotics Commissioner may also exercise:
a. Judicial powers
b. Legislative powers
c. Powers delegated by State Governments
d. Such other powers and functions as may be entrusted by the Central Government
109. The authority competent to entrust additional powers to the Narcotics Commissioner is:
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Government
d. Board
110. Section 5(3) applies to which officers?
a. Officers appointed under Section 4(3)
b. State Government officers
c. Officers appointed under Section 5(1)
d. Judicial officers
111. Under Section 5(3), officers may also be placed under the control of:
a. Courts
b. State Governments
c. Foreign authorities
d. The Board or any other authority or officer
112. Placement of officers under the Board or other authority under Section 5(3) requires:
a. Parliamentary approval
b. Judicial order
c. Direction by the Central Government
d. Recommendation of the Narcotics Commissioner
113. Section 6 of the NDPS Act provides for the constitution of:
a. A regulatory authority
b. An advisory committee
c. An enforcement agency
d. A judicial body
114. The authority empowered to constitute the Consultative Committee under Section 6(1) is:
a. Parliament
b. Board
c. State Government
d. Central Government
115. The Consultative Committee under Section 6 is constituted by:
a. Executive order
b. Notification in the Official Gazette
c. Parliamentary resolution
d. Judicial direction
116. The official name of the committee constituted under Section 6 is:
a. Narcotics Advisory Board
b. Central Narcotics Committee
c. Psychotropic Substances Committee
d. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Consultative Committee
117. The Consultative Committee is constituted to advise the Central Government on:
a. Matters referred to it by Parliament
b. Matters concerning State legislation
c. Matters relating to investigation
d. Matters relating to the administration of the Act referred by the Government
118. The expression “hereafter in this section referred to as the Committee” appears in:
a. Section 6(2)
b. Section 6(3)
c. Section 6(1)
d. Section 6(4)
119. The Committee under Section 6(2) shall consist of:
a. A Chairman only
b. A Chairman and exactly twenty members
c. A Chairman and not more than twenty other members
d. A Chairman and members nominated by States
120. The maximum number of members other than the Chairman in the Committee is:
a. Ten
b. Fifteen
c. Twenty-five
d. Twenty
121. The members of the Committee under Section 6(2) are appointed by:
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Government
d. State Governments
122. The Committee shall meet:
a. At fixed statutory intervals
b. Once every year
c. At the discretion of the Chairman
d. When required by the Central Government
123. The Committee has the power to:
a. Frame binding regulations
b. Regulate its own procedure
c. Conduct investigations
d. Issue executive orders
124. The power to regulate its own procedure is provided under:
a. Section 6(1)
b. Section 6(2)
c. Section 6(4)
d. Section 6(3)
125. Under Section 6(4), the Committee may constitute:
a. Special courts
b. One or more sub-committees
c. Regional offices
d. Enforcement wings
126. The Committee may constitute sub-committees for:
a. Any judicial function
b. Licensing purposes
c. Efficient discharge of any of its functions
d. Prosecution of offenders
127. A sub-committee under Section 6(4) may include:
a. Only members of the Committee
b. Only government officials
c. Only experts nominated by Parliament
d. Any person including a non-official
128. A person appointed to a sub-committee under Section 6(4):
a. Must be a Committee member
b. Must be approved by Parliament
c. Must be a government servant
d. Need not be a member of the Committee
129. The Committee may appoint persons to sub-committees:
a. Only permanently
b. Only temporarily
c. Only for advisory purposes
d. Generally or for a particular matter
130. Matters relating to term of office of members of the Committee are to be:
a. Provided in the Act
b. Determined by the Chairman
c. Prescribed by rules
d. Decided by Parliament
131. The authority competent to make rules regarding the Committee is:
a. Parliament
b. Board
c. Supreme Court
d. Central Government
132. Rules made under Section 6(5) may provide for:
a. Punishment of Committee members
b. Allowances payable to the Chairman and members
c. Judicial powers of the Committee
d. Enforcement powers
133. Casual vacancies in the Committee are to be filled:
a. By fresh legislation
b. By judicial order
c. As prescribed by rules
d. By State Governments
134. Conditions and restrictions for appointing non-members to sub-committees shall be:
a. Fixed by the Committee
b. Decided by the Chairman
c. Left to executive discretion
d. Prescribed by Central Government rules
135. Section 7 of the NDPS Act deals with:
a. Officers of Central Government
b. Powers of the Board
c. Officers of State Government
d. Constitution of authorities
136. Under Section 7(1), the authority empowered to appoint officers is:
a. Central Government
b. Board
c. State Legislature
d. State Government
137. Officers under Section 7(1) may be appointed:
a. Only with designations specified in the Act
b. With such designations as the State Government thinks fit
c. Only as recommended by the Central Government
d. Only with designations prescribed by rules
138. Officers appointed under Section 7(1) are appointed for the purposes of:
a. Enforcement of criminal law generally
b. State NDPS Rules only
c. Investigation under the CrPC
d. This Act
139. Section 7(2) applies to:
a. Officers appointed under Section 4
b. Officers appointed under Section 6
c. Officers appointed under Section 7(1)
d. Officers appointed under Section 5
140. Officers appointed under Section 7(1) shall be subject to the general control and direction of:
a. Central Government
b. Judiciary
c. Board
d. State Government
141. In addition to the State Government, officers under Section 7(2) may also be placed under the control of:
a. Central Government automatically
b. Courts
c. Parliament
d. Any other authority or officer
142. Placement of officers under any other authority or officer under Section 7(2) requires:
a. Judicial sanction
b. Parliamentary approval
c. Consent of the officer concerned
d. Direction by the State Government
143. Section 7A of the NDPS Act provides for the constitution of:
a. A regulatory authority
b. A national fund
c. A special tribunal
d. A statutory board
144. The Fund constituted under Section 7A is called:
a. National Anti-Drug Fund
b. Central Drug Control Fund
c. National Fund for Control of Drug Abuse
d. National Fund for Prevention of Drug Abuse
145. The authority empowered to constitute the Fund under Section 7A(1) is:
a. Parliament
b. Central Government
c. Governing Body
d. State Government
146. The Fund under Section 7A is constituted by:
a. Parliamentary resolution
b. Executive order
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Judicial direction
147. The expression “hereafter in this Chapter referred to as the Fund” appears in:
a. Section 7A(1)
b. Section 7A(3)
c. Section 7A(2)
d. Section 7A(4)
148. Amounts credited to the Fund under Section 7A(1)(a) require:
a. Recommendation of the Governing Body
b. Due appropriation made by Parliament by law
c. Approval of State Governments
d. Judicial approval
149. Sale proceeds credited to the Fund under Section 7A(1)(b) arise from property forfeited under:
a. Chapter IV
b. Chapter VI
c. Chapter VA
d. Chapter VII
150. Which of the following may be credited to the Fund under Section 7A(1)?
a. Court fines
b. Grants made by any person or institution
c. Penalties imposed under the Act
d. Compounding fees
151. Income credited to the Fund under Section 7A(1)(d) arises from:
a. Parliamentary grants
b. Investment of amounts credited to the Fund
c. Sale of seized drugs
d. Confiscation proceedings
152. Section 7A(2) provides that the Fund shall be applied by:
a. Governing Body
b. Parliament
c. Central Government
d. State Governments
153. Expenditure from the Fund may be incurred for combating:
a. Drug-related crimes generally
b. Only international drug trafficking
c. Organised crime
d. Illicit traffic in narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances or controlled substances
154. Section 7A(2)(b) specifically refers to controlling the abuse of:
a. Controlled substances only
b. Chemical substances
c. Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
d. Medicinal drugs
155. Identification, treatment and rehabilitation of addicts is covered under:
a. Section 7A(2)(a)
b. Section 7A(2)(b)
c. Section 7A(2)(c)
d. Section 7A(2)(d)