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Bihar Prohibition One Liner Notes
There are 3 Sets of MCQs available for Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021 (Amendment 2022), you are advised to explore all the sets :
1. Where a premises consists of multiple units with different ownership, which unit will be sealed?
a. Entire building
b. Only the unit where the offence has been committed
c. All units on that floor
d. All units owned by the same person
2. Who has the authority to initiate confiscation proceedings of premises or property under Rule 12(B)?
a. Police Officer
b. Excise Officer
c. Collector
d. District Magistrate
3. The Collector initiates confiscation proceedings upon receiving a proposal from whom?
a. State Government
b. District Court
c. Transport Authority
d. Police Officer or Excise Officer
4. Before confiscating any premises or property, the Collector must issue:
a. Arrest warrant
b. Seizure memo
c. Show cause notice
d. Search warrant
5. The show cause notice issued by the Collector must be served according to the procedure prescribed under:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Civil Procedure Code, 1908
d. Evidence Act, 1872
6. The procedure for service of notice under Rule 12(B) is similar to the service of:
a. Warrants
b. Summons
c. Notices under civil law
d. Arrest orders
7. The Collector must provide which of the following before passing an order of confiscation?
a. Police report
b. Written affidavit
c. Judicial approval
d. Reasonable opportunity of hearing
8. Who among the following may participate in the hearing before the Collector?
a. Owner of the premises or property
b. Investigating Officer or Inquiry Officer
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only police authorities
9. If the person served with notice fails to appear on how many consecutive hearing dates, the confiscating authority may pass an ex-parte order?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
10. After hearing the parties, the Collector may pass which of the following orders?
a. Confiscation of premises or property
b. Unsealing of premises
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Cancellation of FIR
11. The Collector decides confiscation based on his satisfaction regarding:
a. Ownership of property
b. Whether an offence has been committed under the Act
c. Market value of property
d. Police recommendation only
12. The Collector must pass the order of confiscation within how many days from the date of appearance of the affected party?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
13. The confiscation order passed by the Collector must be:
a. Oral order
b. Summary order
c. Reasoned order after appreciation of evidence
d. Police report
14. Any person aggrieved by the order of the Collector may:
a. File review before the Collector
b. File appeal in the manner prescribed under the rules
c. File complaint before police
d. Approach the Excise Inspector
15. Who has the power to seize an animal, vehicle, vessel or other conveyance used for carrying intoxicant or liquor?
a. Police Superintendent
b. Any officer within the meaning of Section 73 of the Act
c. Collector
d. District Magistrate
16. Seizure of conveyance may be made when the officer finds that it is being used for:
a. Transporting agricultural goods
b. Carrying intoxicant or liquor
c. Carrying industrial machinery
d. Transporting passengers
17. After seizure, the animal/vehicle/vessel or conveyance must be forwarded to:
a. Collector’s office
b. District Court
c. Nearest Police Station or Excise Office within whose jurisdiction seizure was made
d. Transport Authority
18. The seized conveyance must be forwarded along with which document?
a. FIR copy
b. Seizure list
c. Transport permit
d. Inventory report
19. The purpose of forwarding the seized conveyance to the police station or excise office is for:
a. Auction of property
b. Institution of the case
c. Registration of vehicle
d. Payment of penalty
20. After institution of the case, the proposal for confiscation of the seized conveyance shall be sent to:
a. District Magistrate
b. Collector
c. Excise Commissioner
d. Transport Commissioner
21. The proposal for confiscation must be accompanied by verification report from which authority?
a. Police Superintendent
b. District Transport Officer or any authorized authority for vehicle registration
c. District Magistrate
d. Excise Inspector
22. Along with the verification report of the District Transport Officer, which other report must accompany the confiscation proposal?
a. Police report
b. Chemical examiner’s report
c. Magistrate’s order
d. Revenue officer’s report
23. The proposal for confiscation must be sent to the Collector within how many days of seizure?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
24. If there is delay in submission of the confiscation proposal, who must explain the delay?
a. Collector
b. District Transport Officer
c. Police or Excise Officer
d. Chemical Examiner
25. Under Rule 13(A), who has the power to seize an animal, vehicle, vessel or other conveyance?
a. Collector
b. District Magistrate
c. Any officer within the meaning of Section 73 of the Act
d. Police Superintendent
26. Seizure under Rule 13(A) can be made when the officer finds that the conveyance is being used for:
a. Transporting goods
b. Carrying intoxicant or liquor
c. Commercial purposes
d. Passenger transport
27. After seizure, the conveyance must be forwarded to:
a. Collector’s office
b. District Court
c. Nearest Police Station or Excise Office within whose jurisdiction seizure was effected
d. Transport Authority
28. The seized conveyance must be forwarded along with which document?
a. FIR copy
b. Charge sheet
c. Seizure list
d. Inventory report
29. The purpose of forwarding the seized conveyance to the police station or excise office is for:
a. Auction of property
b. Institution of the case
c. Registration of vehicle
d. Assessment of tax
30. After institution of the case, the proposal for confiscation shall be sent to:
a. District Magistrate
b. Collector
c. Excise Commissioner
d. Transport Commissioner
31. The proposal for confiscation must be sent within how many days of seizure?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
32. The proposal for confiscation must be accompanied by verification report from:
a. Police Superintendent
b. District Transport Officer or authorized registering authority
c. District Magistrate
d. Excise Inspector
33. Along with the verification report, which additional report must be submitted?
a. Police report
b. Chemical examiner’s report
c. Revenue report
d. Court order
34. If there is delay in submission of the confiscation proposal, who must explain the delay?
a. Collector
b. District Transport Officer
c. Police or Excise Officer
d. Chemical Examiner
35. Who has the authority to confiscate vehicles, vessels or other conveyances under Rule 13(B)?
a. Police Superintendent
b. Excise Commissioner
c. Collector
d. District Magistrate
36. The Collector initiates confiscation proceedings upon receiving proposal from whom?
a. District Magistrate
b. State Government
c. Transport Authority
d. Police Officer or Excise Officer
37. Before confiscation of a vehicle or conveyance, the Collector must issue which of the following?
a. Arrest warrant
b. Seizure order
c. Show cause notice
d. Summons for arrest
38. The show cause notice issued by the Collector must be served according to the procedure prescribed under which law?
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Civil Procedure Code, 1908
d. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
39. The notice issued by the Collector shall be served in the manner prescribed for service of:
a. Warrants
b. Summons
c. Court decrees
d. Police notices
40. The Collector must provide which of the following before passing an order of confiscation?
a. Written police approval
b. Court permission
c. Transport authority approval
d. Reasonable opportunity of hearing
41. During the confiscation hearing, who may participate along with the owner of the vehicle or conveyance?
a. Investigating Officer or Inquiry Officer
b. Police Superintendent
c. District Magistrate
d. Transport Officer
42. If the person served with notice fails to appear on how many consecutive hearing dates, the confiscating authority may pass an ex parte order?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
43. The Collector shall pass an order regarding seized vehicle or conveyance only after:
a. Receiving police report
b. Hearing the parties
c. Court approval
d. Transport authority verification
44. The Collector may pass an order regarding the seized vehicle or conveyance when he is satisfied that:
a. The vehicle is unregistered
b. The owner is absent
c. The vehicle was used for transport
d. An offence has been committed under the Act
45. The order passed by the Collector after hearing the parties relates to:
a. Sale of the vehicle
b. Seized vehicle or conveyance
c. Licensing of the vehicle
d. Registration of the vehicle
46. Any person aggrieved by the order passed by the Collector may:
a. File revision before Collector
b. File complaint before police
c. Approach Transport Authority
d. File appeal in the manner prescribed under the Rules
47. The appeal against the Collector’s order must be filed:
a. As per the procedure prescribed under the Rules
b. Directly before the High Court
c. Before the Police Superintendent
d. Before the District Transport Officer
48. The disposal of seized or confiscated things under Rule 14 is ordered by whom?
a. Police Superintendent
b. Excise Commissioner
c. Collector
d. District Magistrate
49. The Collector may order destruction of a seized article before confiscation if it is:
a. Liable to speedy and natural decay
b. Of trifling value
c. Likely to be misused
d. All of the above
50. The power to destroy seized articles before confiscation is exercised under which section of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act?
a. Section 52
b. Section 57
c. Section 73
d. Section 92
51. Destruction of seized articles under Rule 14 may be ordered:
a. Only after confiscation order
b. Only after court approval
c. Only after police report
d. At any time before passing the confiscation order
52. Confiscated animals, vehicles, vessels or other conveyances shall generally be disposed of by:
a. Government auction only
b. Public auction to the highest bidder
c. Police custody
d. Transfer to transport department
53. The public auction of confiscated property must normally be conducted within what time period after finality of the confiscation order?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days (one month)
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
54. Instead of public auction, confiscated property may also be:
a. Returned to the accused
b. Put to government use in the prescribed manner
c. Destroyed immediately
d. Sold privately
55. The Collector may extend the period for auction of confiscated property if:
a. Directed by the court
b. Requested by police
c. Approved by the Excise Commissioner
d. He deems it fit
56. Under Rule 14, the term “finality” refers to:
a. Date of FIR
b. Date of seizure
c. Date of order of Excise Commissioner under Section 92 of the Act
d. Date of police report
57. The confiscated premises or part thereof may also be disposed of through:
a. Private sale
b. Public auction
c. Court auction
d. Transfer to police department
58. BSBCL stands for:
a. Bihar State Beverages Corporation Limited
b. Bihar State Beverage Control Limited
c. Bihar State Bottling Corporation Limited
d. Bihar State Beverage Company Limited
59. Bihar State Beverages Corporation Limited (BSBCL) is incorporated under which Act?
a. Companies Act, 2013
b. Partnership Act, 1932
c. Cooperative Societies Act
d. Companies Act, 1956
60. BSBCL operates under the aegis of which department of the Government of Bihar?
a. Department of Home Affairs
b. Department of Prohibition, Excise and Registration
c. Department of Finance
d. Department of Industries
61. The primary objective of BSBCL is to:
a. Promote liquor trade in Bihar
b. Manufacture alcohol
c. Provide and initiate facilities for promoting total prohibition
d. Regulate transport vehicles
62. Apart from promoting prohibition, BSBCL also undertakes:
a. Judicial work
b. Police investigation
c. Transport regulation
d. Other works related to the Prohibition, Excise and Registration Department
63. Under Rule 16, BSBCL acts as:
a. Licensing authority
b. Implementing agency of the Department for total prohibition
c. Judicial authority
d. Investigating authority
64. BSBCL helps in fulfilling the objectives of:
a. Industrial policy
b. Agricultural policy
c. Trade policy
d. Total prohibition
65. BSBCL is responsible for implementing and strengthening which of the following?
a. Tax collection infrastructure
b. Enforcement infrastructure
c. Judicial infrastructure
d. Transport infrastructure
66. BSBCL assists which department in establishing and operating de-addiction centres?
a. Home Department
b. Social Welfare Department
c. Education Department
d. Health Department
67. De-addiction centres supported by BSBCL may be established at places decided by:
a. Collector
b. Excise Commissioner
c. State Government
d. Health Department
68. BSBCL encourages voluntary prohibition by rewarding which of the following?
a. NGOs
b. Women groups
c. Social workers or organizations
d. All of the above
69. Rewards for promoting voluntary prohibition are given according to which policy?
a. Industrial Policy, 2016
b. New Excise Policy, 2015
c. Health Policy, 2017
d. Prohibition Policy, 2020
70. BSBCL undertakes awareness campaigns and advertising mainly to:
a. Promote tourism
b. Generate revenue
c. Promote voluntary prohibition and awareness about addiction
d. Encourage liquor trade
71. BSBCL supports the Collector in enforcement of prohibition by providing which of the following?
a. Financial aid
b. Infrastructure support
c. Manpower and equipment
d. All of the above
72. BSBCL may assist in setting up which of the following for enforcement of prohibition?
a. Check posts and barriers
b. Hajat and Malkhana
c. Vehicles and IT equipment
d. All of the above
73. Under Rule 17, cash rewards may be given to which of the following?
a. Government servants of the Department
b. Informers
c. Only police officers
d. Both (a) and (b)
74. Cash rewards to government servants are given for:
a. Administrative work
b. Judicial work
c. Outstanding work in enforcing the prohibition regime
d. Training programs
75. Cash rewards to government servants are provided from:
a. Central Government funds
b. Department’s own funds
c. District Magistrate’s funds
d. Police welfare funds
76. Rewards may be given to civilians who help in:
a. Judicial proceedings
b. Collection of taxes
c. Vehicle registration
d. Major recovery of intoxicants or illegal liquor
77. Under Rule 17, civilians who provide information leading to recovery of intoxicants are known as:
a. Witnesses
b. Informers
c. Complainants
d. Investigators
78. Which of the following awards may be conferred for good work done by Excise or Police Officers?
a. Police Service Medal
b. Prohibition Medal
c. Gallantry Medal
d. Civil Service Medal
79. Prohibition Medals may be awarded to:
a. Only Excise Officers
b. Only Police Officers
c. Both Excise Officers and Police Officers
d. Only government ministers
80. Detailed guidelines for conferring cash rewards and prohibition medals shall be made by:
a. State Government
b. Department of Prohibition, Excise and Registration
c. Excise Commissioner
d. Collector
81. Rule 18 provides that provisions of which of the following laws shall apply unless otherwise provided in the Act?
a. Code of Criminal Procedure
b. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
c. Bihar Police Manual
d. All of the above
82. The provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure apply to matters relating to:
a. Arrests
b. Investigation
c. Submission of charge sheet
d. All of the above
83. The Indian Evidence Act applicable under Rule 18 was enacted in which year?
a. 1860
b. 1908
c. 1872
d. 1973
84. The Bihar Police Manual is applicable for procedures relating to:
a. Tax collection
b. Investigation and supervision
c. Judicial decisions
d. Industrial regulation
85. The provisions of CrPC, Evidence Act and Bihar Police Manual apply under Rule 18:
a. In all circumstances
b. Only when ordered by the Collector
c. Only during trial
d. Save as otherwise expressly provided in the Act
86. Rule 19 deals with which of the following?
a. Bail in case of first-time offence
b. Arrest procedure
c. Confiscation of property
d. Seizure of vehicles
87. The provisions of which law apply for bail in case of a first-time offence under the Act?
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Evidence Act, 1872
c. Civil Procedure Code
d. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
88. The specific provision of the CrPC applicable for bail under Rule 19 is:
a. Section 437
b. Section 436
c. Section 438
d. Section 439
89. Rule 19 applies to a first-time offence under which of the following provisions of the Act?
a. Section 57 and Section 73
b. Section 52 and Section 92
c. Section 30 and Section 40
d. Section 37(1) and Section 54(2)
90. Bail under Rule 19 is applicable only when the offence is committed:
a. For the second time
b. After conviction
c. For the first time
d. After confiscation
91. To establish identity for release on bail, the person must furnish:
a. Valid photo identity card
b. Police verification
c. Court affidavit
d. Address proof only
92. The valid photo identity card must be submitted along with:
a. FIR copy
b. Bail bond
c. Charge sheet
d. Seizure list
93. Every appeal under Rule 20 is filed under which section of the Act?
a. Section 57
b. Section 73
c. Section 54
d. Section 92
94. An appeal under Section 92 shall be made in the form of:
a. Petition
b. Written complaint
c. Application
d. Affidavit
95. The petition of appeal must be addressed to:
a. The Collector
b. The authority to whom the appeal lies
c. The court of magistrate
d. The police station
96. The petition of appeal must be written in:
a. Detailed legal language
b. Technical language
c. Concise and intelligible language
d. Informal language
97. The petition of appeal must bear the signature or mark of:
a. Only the appellant
b. Only the lawyer
c. The police officer
d. The appellant and his duly authorized lawyer
98. The petition of appeal must contain which of the following particulars?
a. Name, father's name, occupation and address of the appellant
b. Date of the order appealed against
c. Statement of facts and grounds of objection
d. All of the above
99. The petition must include which of the following details of the appellant?
a. All of the above
b. Name and father's name
c. Occupation
d. Place of residence or business address
100. The petition of appeal must contain a statement of:
a. Evidence only
b. Law only
c. Facts
d. Witness details
101. The grounds of objection in the appeal relate to:
a. FIR
b. Order appealed against
c. Police investigation
d. Witness testimony
102. The appeal petition must be accompanied by:
a. Copy of FIR
b. Police report
c. Charge sheet
d. Original certified copy of the order appealed against
103. Under Rule 21, who fixes the date for hearing of an appeal?
a. Collector
b. Appellate Authority
c. Excise Commissioner
d. District Magistrate
104. After fixing the date of hearing, the appellate authority shall:
a. Issue warrant
b. Call police report
c. Issue notice for hearing
d. Issue summons for arrest
105. If the appellant does not appear on the date fixed for hearing, the appellate authority may:
a. Dismiss the appeal automatically
b. Refer the matter to the police
c. Transfer the case
d. Decide the appeal ex parte
106. The appellate authority may decide the appeal ex parte on the basis of:
a. Police investigation only
b. Material available on record
c. Witness statements only
d. Court order
107. The appellant may appear before the appellate authority:
a. Only personally
b. Only through lawyer
c. Either personally or through his/her lawyer
d. Only through police officer
108. The appellate authority must pass the appeal order within how many days from the date of appearance of the affected party?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
109. The appeal order passed by the appellate authority must be:
a. Oral order
b. Summary order
c. Interim order
d. Reasoned order
110. An appeal may be rejected if it does not comply with the requirements of which rule?
a. Rule 19
b. Rule 21
c. Rule 23
d. Rule 20
111. Before rejecting an appeal for non-compliance with Rule 20, the appellate authority must:
a. Inform the police
b. Provide opportunity to the appellant to comply with the requirements
c. Forward the case to the Collector
d. Issue arrest warrant
112. The opportunity given to the appellant before rejection of appeal shall be such as the appellate authority:
a. Is directed by the court
b. Thinks fit
c. Decides with police approval
d. Prescribes by the State Government
113. An appeal may also be rejected on:
a. Other grounds recorded in writing by the appellate authority
b. Only technical grounds
c. Only police report
d. Only government instructions
114. If an appeal is rejected on other grounds, those grounds must be:
a. Recorded in writing
b. Communicated orally
c. Not recorded
d. Sent to police
115. Before passing an order rejecting an appeal under Rule 22(2), the appellant must be given:
a. Police notice
b. Opportunity of being heard
c. Court summons
d. Written warning
116. Under Rule 23, a copy of the order passed in appeal shall be supplied to:
a. Police Officer
b. District Magistrate
c. Appellant
d. Transport Officer
117. The copy of the appellate order supplied to the appellant shall be:
a. On payment of prescribed fee
b. Free of cost
c. After court approval
d. Only upon application
118. Apart from the appellant, another copy of the appellate order shall be sent to:
a. Collector
b. Police Superintendent
c. State Government
d. Officer whose order is the subject matter of appeal
119. The second copy of the appellate order is sent to the officer:
a. Who conducted investigation
b. Who filed the FIR
c. Who passed the original order appealed against
d. Who seized the property
120. Rule 23 ensures that the appellate order is communicated to:
a. Only the appellant
b. Only the investigating officer
c. Only the Collector
d. Both the appellant and the officer whose order was appealed against
121. Under Rule 24, the procedure prescribed for which of the following shall also apply to revision?
a. Appeal
b. Investigation
c. Bail
d. Confiscation
122. Who exercises the power of revision under Rule 24?
a. Collector
b. Excise Commissioner
c. Secretary of the Department
d. District Magistrate
123. For revision proceedings, the authority shall fix:
a. Date for investigation
b. Date for inspection
c. Date for seizure
d. Date for regular hearing
124. If the revisionist does not appear on the date fixed for hearing, the authority may:
a. Dismiss the case automatically
b. Refer the matter to the Collector
c. Transfer the case to court
d. Decide the revision application ex parte
125. The revision application may be decided ex parte on the basis of:
a. Police report only
b. Witness statements only
c. Government orders
d. Material available on record
126. The revisionist may appear before the authority:
a. Only personally
b. Either personally or through an agent
c. Only through lawyer
d. Only through police officer
127. The revision authority must pass the revision order within how many days from the date of appearance of the affected party?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
128. The revision order passed by the authority must be:
a. Oral order
b. Interim order
c. Police report
d. Reasoned order
129. With the coming into force of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021, which of the following earlier rules stand repealed?
a. Bihar Spiced Country Spirit (Manufacture and Sale) Rules, 1976
b. Bihar Country Liquor Bottling Rules, 2004
c. Bihar Beer (Import and Sale) Rules, 2000
d. All of the above
130. The notification No. 470F and 471F dated 15 January 1919 were issued under which regime?
a. Bihar Prohibition Rules
b. Earlier Excise Rules
c. Police Rules
d. Transport Rules
131. The Bihar Liquor (Price Fixation and Control) Rules were originally framed in which year?
a. 1990
b. 1992
c. 1998
d. 1994
132. The Bihar Beer (Import and Sale) Rules repealed under Rule 25 were framed in which year?
a. 1998
b. 2004
c. 2007
d. 2000
133. The Bihar Excise (Settlement of licenses for retail sale of country/spiced country liquor/foreign liquor/beer and composite liquor shop) Rules were framed in which year?
a. 2004
b. 2005
c. 2007
d. 2010
134. Notwithstanding repeal of earlier rules, actions taken or licences granted under those rules shall:
a. Become invalid immediately
b. Require fresh approval
c. Continue to be valid if not inconsistent with the Act or these Rules
d. Be cancelled automatically
135. Actions taken under repealed rules will be deemed to have been taken under:
a. The Indian Penal Code
b. Police Manual
c. Civil Procedure Code
d. Corresponding provisions of the new rules
136. The saving clause applies only if the previous actions are:
a. Approved by the Collector
b. Approved by the High Court
c. Consistent with the Act and the new Rules
d. Recorded by police
137. Licences granted under the repealed rules will remain valid if they are:
a. Confirmed by the Collector
b. Not inconsistent with the Act or the new Rules
c. Renewed by the police
d. Registered again
138. Under Rule 25(2), actions taken under the repealed rules shall be treated as:
a. Invalid actions
b. Fresh actions under the Police Manual
c. Actions requiring fresh approval
d. Actions taken under the corresponding provisions of the new rules
139. The saving clause under Rule 25(2) applies to which of the following?
a. Anything done under the repealed rules
b. Actions taken or purported to have been taken
c. Licences granted under the repealed rules
d. All of the above
140. The saving clause applies only when the earlier actions are:
a. Approved by the Collector
b. Confirmed by the police
c. Approved by the High Court
d. Not inconsistent with the new Rules or the Act
141. The earlier actions saved under Rule 25(2) must be in furtherance of which law?
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Code of Criminal Procedure
c. Evidence Act
d. Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016
142. Licences granted under repealed rules shall be deemed to have been granted under:
a. The Indian Penal Code
b. Corresponding provisions of these Rules
c. Police Manual
d. Motor Vehicles Act