ADMINISTRATIVE LAW
1. Doctrine of legitimate expectation protects:
a. Procedural fairness
b. Criminal rights
c. Property rights
d. Legislative rights
2. The principle of reasonableness is closely linked with:
a. Wednesbury doctrine
b. Ultra vires doctrine
c. Natural justice
d. Res judicata
3. If authority acts arbitrarily:
a. Court may intervene
b. Court cannot intervene
c. Legislature intervenes
d. Police intervene
4. Administrative discretion must be exercised:
a. Within statutory limits
b. Without limits
c. Without review
d. Without reasons
5. Failure to consider relevant facts leads to:
a. Valid decision
b. Invalid decision
c. Legislative act
d. Criminal liability
6. Acting mechanically means:
a. Blind application of rules
b. Careful reasoning
c. Judicial review
d. Constitutional amendment
7. Doctrine of fairness evolved mainly to:
a. Ensure just administrative decisions
b. Increase executive power
c. Remove courts
d. Remove legislature
8. Administrative law ensures:
a. Accountability of administration
b. Unlimited executive power
c. Removal of judiciary
d. Removal of legislature
9. Judicial review focuses on:
a. Decision-making process
b. Political process
c. Criminal process
d. Contract process
10. Proportionality test evaluates:
a. Balance between means and ends
b. Criminal liability
c. Property rights
d. Contract formation
11. Administrative discretion must be:
a. Arbitrary
b. Fair and reasonable
c. Secret
d. Political
12. Promissory estoppel prevents government from:
a. Breaking promises relied upon by citizens
b. Enacting laws
c. Exercising judicial power
d. Collecting taxes
13. Legitimate expectation doctrine ensures:
a. Fair treatment by administration
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property transfer
d. Contract formation
14. The ultimate aim of controlling administrative discretion is:
a. Protection of rule of law
b. Expansion of executive power
c. Removal of courts
d. Removal of legislature
15. The principles of natural justice are based on:
a. Fairness and justice
b. Administrative convenience
c. Political decisions
d. Criminal punishment
16. Natural justice mainly aims to:
a. Ensure fair administrative decisions
b. Increase executive power
c. Remove courts
d. Remove legislature
17. Administrative adjudication became necessary because:
a. Growth of welfare state
b. Increase in technical disputes
c. Need for quick decisions
d. All of the above
18. One major problem of administrative adjudication is:
a. Lack of procedural safeguards
b. Delay in courts
c. Legislative supremacy
d. Criminal punishment
19. Natural justice applies mainly to:
a. Administrative and quasi-judicial actions
b. Legislative functions
c. Criminal punishment only
d. Property law
20. Judicial action refers to:
a. Decisions taken by courts
b. Decisions taken by executive
c. Decisions taken by legislature
d. Decisions taken by police
21. Quasi-judicial actions involve:
a. Administrative authority deciding disputes
b. Legislature making laws
c. Police investigation
d. Contract formation
22. The principles of natural justice include:
a. Rule against bias
b. Right to hearing
c. Reasoned decision
d. All of the above
23. Failure to follow natural justice may result in:
a. Invalid administrative action
b. Criminal liability
c. Legislative amendment
d. Contract formation
24. The maxim Nemo Judex in Causa Sua means:
a. No one should be judge in his own cause
b. Hear the other side
c. Justice delayed is justice denied
d. Equality before law
25.The rule against bias ensures:
a. Legislative power
b. Political control
c. Impartial decision making
d. Criminal punishment
26. Pecuniary bias arises when:
a. Subject matter interest exists
b. Personal friendship exists
c. Decision maker has financial interest
d. Criminal motive exists
27. Personal bias occurs when:
a. Decision maker has personal relationship
b. Financial interest exists
c. Political control exists
d. Administrative control exists
28. Subject-matter bias refers to:
a. Interest in subject of dispute
b. Financial interest
c. Personal relationship
d. Political interest
29.Landmark case on pecuniary bias is:
a. Dimes v Grand Junction Canal
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Kesavananda Bharati
d. Bolam case
30. In Dimes v Grand Junction Canal case:
a. Judge had no interest
b. Judge had personal bias
c. Judge acted legally
d. Judge had financial interest
31. Personal bias was discussed in:
a. A.K. Kraipak v Union of India
b. Rylands v Fletcher
c. Donoghue v Stevenson
d. Wednesbury case
32. The case A.K. Kraipak v Union of India established:
a. Natural justice applies to administrative actions
b. Courts cannot review administration
c. Executive supremacy
d. Criminal liability
33. Burden of proof in bias cases lies on:
a. Government
b. Judge
c. Legislature
d. Person alleging bias
34. Mala fide means:
a. Bad faith
b. Good faith
c. Criminal liability
d. Legislative authority
35. Audi Alteram Partem means:
a. Hear the other side
b. No one judge in own cause
c. Justice delayed justice denied
d. Rule of law
36. Audi alteram partem ensures:
a. Criminal punishment
b. Judicial supremacy
c. Opportunity to be heard
d. Contract enforcement
37. The right to notice means:
a. Person must be informed of charges
b. Person must be punished
c. Court must decide secretly
d. Government decides secretly
38. Notice must contain:
a. Charges against person
b. Time of hearing
c. Relevant details
d. All of the above
39. Right to present evidence means:
a. Opportunity to defend oneself
b. Criminal punishment
c. Legislative authority
d. Administrative control
40. Right to know adverse evidence means:
a. Person should know evidence against him
b. Evidence should remain secret
c. Court decides secretly
d. Police decide secretly
41. Cross-examination ensures:
a. Testing credibility of evidence
b. Criminal punishment
c. Contract formation
d. Legislative control
42. Right to representation means:
a. Right to vote
b. Right to lawyer
c. Right to contract
d. Right to property
43. Legal representation may be denied when:
a. Statute prohibits
b. Case simple
c. Administrative procedure
d.All of the above
44. Landmark case on legal representation:
a. Nandini Satpathy v P.L. Dani
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Bolam case
45. Natural justice also requires:
a. Fair procedure
b. Transparent decision
c. Opportunity to defend
d. All of the above
46. Failure to give hearing violates:
a. Audi alteram partem
b. Rule of law
c. Criminal law
d. Property law
47. Post-decisional hearing means:
a. Hearing given after decision
b. Hearing before decision
c. No hearing
d. Criminal trial
48. Post-decisional hearing was discussed in:
a. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Wednesbury case
49. In Maneka Gandhi case:
a. Post-decisional hearing allowed
b. No hearing allowed
c. Judicial review denied
d. Criminal liability imposed
50. Natural justice may be excluded when:
a. Statute explicitly excludes it
b. Emergency situations
c. Public interest requires
d. All of the above
51. Legislative actions generally:
a. Do not follow natural justice
b. Always follow natural justice
c. Follow criminal law
d. Follow contract law
52. Interim preventive actions may:
a. Exclude prior hearing
b. Require hearing
c. Require court order
d. Require contract
53. Confidential matters may justify:
a. Exclusion of natural justice
b. Criminal punishment
c. Legislative amendment
d. Property rights
54. The main objective of natural justice is:
a. Fairness
b. Efficiency
c. Authority
d. Punishment
55. Natural justice principles are:
a. Flexible
b. Rigid
c. Criminal rules
d. Contractual rules
56. Courts apply natural justice when:
a. Rights of individuals affected
b. Criminal offence occurs
c. Property transferred
d. Contract formed
57. Administrative decisions affecting rights must:
a. Follow police procedure
b. Ignore natural justice
c. Follow natural justice
d. Follow criminal procedure
58. Bias may invalidate decision because:
a. Decision not impartial
b. Decision criminal
c. Decision legislative
d. Decision constitutional
59. Nemo judex rule prevents:
a. Partiality
b. Criminal punishment
c. Legislative supremacy
d. Contract formation
60. Audi alteram partem protects:
a. Right to fair hearing
b. Criminal law
c. Property law
d. Contract law
61. Natural justice applies even when:
a. Statute silent
b. Statute prohibits
c. Criminal offence occurs
d. Contract formed
62. Natural justice evolved mainly to:
a. Remove legislature
b. Increase executive power
c. Remove judiciary
d. Prevent misuse of administrative power
63. Natural justice is closely related to:
a. Rule of law
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property transfer
d. Contract enforcement
64. The doctrine ensures:
a. Fair procedure
b. Arbitrary rule
c. Secret decision
d. Political decision
65. Courts may strike down administrative action if:
a. Natural justice violated
b. Contract violated
c. Criminal offence committed
d. Property transferred
66. Post-decisional hearing is accepted mainly when:
a. Urgent action required
b. Ordinary case
c. Contract dispute
d. Property dispute
67. The ultimate aim of natural justice is:
a. Authority
b. Punishment
c. Justice
d. Control
68. Natural justice ensures:
a. Fairness in administrative process
b. Criminal punishment
c. Contract enforcement
d. Property rights
69. Bias rule protects:
a. Impartial justice
b. Criminal law
c. Property law
d. Contract law
70. Hearing rule protects:
a. Right to punish
b. Right to defend
c. Right to property
d. Right to vote
71. Natural justice principles are:
a. Universal
b. Arbitrary
c. Criminal
d. Political
72. Administrative decisions violating fairness may be:
a. Quashed by court
b. Automatically valid
c. Criminal offence
d. Legislative act
73. Courts use natural justice to ensure:
a. Political control
b. Arbitrary rule
c. Rule of law
d. Police control
74. The foundation of natural justice is:
a. Fair play in action
b. Political power
c. Criminal punishment
d. Property rights
75. Judicial review refers to:
a. Power of courts to review administrative and legislative actions
b. Power of legislature to review courts
c. Power of executive to review laws
d. Criminal punishment
76. Judicial review is essential for:
a. Maintaining rule of law
b. Protecting fundamental rights
c. Controlling administrative power
d. All of the above
77. Judicial review in India is mainly derived from:
a. Constitution
b. Criminal law
c. Contract law
d. Property law
78. The Supreme Court exercises judicial review mainly under:
a. Article 300
b. Article 14
c. Article 32
d. Article 51
79. High Courts exercise judicial review mainly under:
a. Article 368
b. Article 370
c. Article 356
d. Article 226
80. Article 227 provides:
a. Supervisory jurisdiction of High Courts
b. Criminal jurisdiction
c. Legislative power
d. Contract law
81. Judicial review helps courts to:
a. Ensure legality of administrative actions
b. Punish criminals
c. Create laws
d. Collect taxes
82. Appeal means:
a. Re-examination by higher court on facts and law
b. Judicial review of constitutionality
c. Administrative order
d. Legislative action
83. Review means:
a. Reconsideration by same court
b. Criminal trial
c. Administrative decision
d. Legislative amendment
84. Difference between appeal and review is:
a. Appeal by higher court
b. Review by same court
c. Both A and B
d. None
85. Ouster clause means:
a. Clause excluding jurisdiction of courts
b. Clause granting jurisdiction
c. Criminal clause
d. Property clause
86. Courts usually interpret ouster clauses:
a. Politically
b. Liberally
c. Arbitrarily
d. Strictly
87. Locus standi refers to:
a. Right to bring action before court
b. Criminal liability
c. Legislative power
d. Administrative discretion
88. Locus standi in public interest litigation was relaxed in:
a. S.P. Gupta v Union of India
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Bolam case
89. Res judicata means:
a. Matter already decided
b. Matter not decided
c. Criminal case
d. Legislative case
90. Res judicata prevents:
a. Re-litigation of same issue
b. Criminal trial
c. Legislative action
d. Property transfer
91. Doctrine of laches means:
a. Equality before law
b. Delay defeats equity
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract formation
92. If petitioner delays filing writ:
a. Court may refuse relief
b. Court must accept case
c. Court ignores delay
d. Legislature intervenes
93. Exhaustion of alternative remedies means:
a. Use other remedies before approaching court
b. Go directly to court
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract enforcement
94. Writ jurisdiction is provided under:
a. Articles 19
b. Article 14
c. Article 32 and 226
d. Article 300
95. Total number of constitutional writs in India:
a. Four
b. Five
c. Three
d. Six
96. The five writs are:
a. Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, Quo Warranto
b. Mandamus, Appeal, Review
c. Habeas Corpus, Review
d. Mandamus, Contract
97. Habeas Corpus literally means:
a. Produce the body
b. Hear the other side
c. No one judge in own cause
d. Equality before law
98. Habeas Corpus protects:
a. Personal liberty
b. Property rights
c. Contract rights
d. Tax rights
99. Landmark case for Habeas Corpus in India:
a. ADM Jabalpur v Shivkant Shukla
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Bolam case
d. Wednesbury case
100. Mandamus means:
a. Held Liable
b. Produce body
c. Stop proceedings
d. We Command
101. Mandamus is issued:
a. To compel public authority to perform duty
b. To punish criminal
c. To transfer property
d. To review law
102. Mandamus cannot be issued against:
a. Private individual
b. Public authority
c. Government
d. Statutory body
103. Prohibition writ is issued by:
a. Legislature to executive
b. Lower court to higher court
c. Higher court to lower court
d. Executive to judiciary
104. Prohibition prevents:
a. Lower court exceeding jurisdiction
b. Criminal punishment
c. Contract enforcement
d. Property transfer
105. Certiorari means:
a. Produce body
b. To be certified
c. Command authority
d. Remove officer
106. Certiorari is issued to:
a. Punish criminal
b. Quash order of lower court
c. Create law
d. Transfer property
107. Certiorari corrects:
a. Jurisdictional errors
b. Contract disputes
c. Property rights
d. Criminal punishments
108. Prohibition differs from certiorari because:
a. Prohibition preventive
b. Certiorari corrective
c. Both A and B
d. None
109. Quo Warranto means:
a. By what authority
b. Produce body
c. Hear other side
d. Command authority
110. Quo Warranto challenges:
a. Illegal holding of public office
b. Criminal offence
c. Contract dispute
d. Property transfer
111. Quo Warranto can be filed by:
a. Any citizen
b. Only affected person
c. Government only
d. Judge only
112. Writ of mandamus was explained in:
a. Imanual Donoghue v Stevenson
b. Praga Tools Corporation v C.A.
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Bolam case
113. Certiorari was explained in:
a. Hari Vishnu Kamath v Ahmad Ishaque
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Bolam case
114. Prohibition applies when:
a. Proceedings completed
b. Proceedings still pending
c. Criminal trial
d. Contract dispute
115. Certiorari applies when:
a. Decision already made
b. Decision pending
c. Criminal case
d. Contract case
116. Habeas Corpus may be filed by:
a. Detained person or friend
b. Government only
c. Judge only
d. Police only
117. Judicial review ensures:
a. Constitutional supremacy
b. Executive supremacy
c. Legislative supremacy
d. Police supremacy
118. Curative petition is filed after:
a. Administrative order
b. Appeal dismissed
c. Criminal trial
d. Review petition dismissed
119. Curative petition doctrine introduced in:
a. Rupa Ashok Hurra v Ashok Hurra
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Kesavananda Bharati
120. Curative petition aims to:
a. Prevent miscarriage of justice
b. Punish criminals
c. Transfer property
d. Create laws
121. Judicial review power of Supreme Court forms part of:
a. Basic structure
b. Ordinary law
c. Contract law
d. Property law
122. Basic structure doctrine was established in:
a. Rylands case
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Bolam case
d. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala
123. Judicial review ensures:
a. Checks and balances
b. Absolute executive power
c. Legislative supremacy
d. Police supremacy
124. High Court writ jurisdiction is:
a. Wider than Supreme Court
b. Narrower
c. Same
d. Absent
125. Article 226 allows writs for:
a. Fundamental rights and other legal rights
b. Only fundamental rights
c. Only criminal rights
d. Property rights only
126. Article 32 provides:
a. Contract law
b. Criminal law
c. Property law
d. Remedy for fundamental rights
127. Article 32 was called:
a. Heart and soul of Constitution
b. Basic law
c. Criminal code
d. Property law
128. The phrase “heart and soul of Constitution” was said by:
a. Austin
b. Dicey
c. BR Ambedkar
d. Bentham
129. Judicial review mainly focuses on:
a. Legality of decision-making process
b. Merits of decision
c. Political decision
d. Criminal punishment
130. Courts usually avoid reviewing:
a. Policy decisions
b. Legal decisions
c. Constitutional issues
d. Administrative errors
131. Judicial review protects:
a. Fundamental rights
b. Rule of law
c. Constitutional supremacy
d. All of the above
132. Locus standi rule was liberalized mainly in:
a. Contract Law
b. Criminal law
c. PIL
d. Property law
133. Judicial review acts as:
a. Check on administrative power
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property transfer
d. Contract formation
134. The ultimate purpose of judicial review is:
a. Ensure rule of law
b. Increase executive power
c. Remove courts
d. Remove legislature