THE EXPLOSIVES SUBSTANCES ACT, 1908
1. The Explosive Substances Act was enacted in the year—
a. 1884
b. 1897
c. 1908
d. 1911
2. The Act number of the Explosive Substances Act, 1908 is—
a. Act No. 4 of 1884
b. Act No. 6 of 1908
c. Act No. 6 of 1884
d. Act No. 8 of 1906
3. The Explosive Substances Act, 1908 came into existence on—
a. 26th February, 1884
b. 8th June, 1908
c. 15th August, 1908
d. 1st January, 1909
4. The words “further to amend the law relating to explosive substances” signify that the Act—
a. Introduces an entirely new subject
b. Supplements existing legal framework
c. Repeals the Explosives Act, 1884
d. Deals only with civil liability
5. The preamble of the Explosive Substances Act, 1908 states that—
a. It consolidates all explosive laws
b. It repeals previous enactments
c. It is necessary further to amend the law relating to explosive substances
d. It regulates manufacture and sale
6. The phrase “WHEREAS it is necessary” in the preamble reflects—
a. Judicial determination
b. Legislative satisfaction
c. Executive discretion
d. Administrative necessity
7. The object of the Explosive Substances Act, 1908, as per its preamble, is to
a. Regulate possession of explosives
b. Create licensing authorities
c. Further amend the law relating to explosive substances
d. Define explosive substances
8. The words “It is hereby enacted as follows” indicate—
a. Commencement clause
b. Subordinate legislation
c. Operative part of the statute
d. Penal provision
9. Section 1(1) of the Explosive Substances Act, 1908 provides the—
a. Commencement date
b. Short title
c. Punishment for offences
d. Definition of explosive substances
10. The short title of the Act is—
a. Explosives Act, 1908
b. Explosive Substances Act, 1908
c. Explosive Substances (Regulation) Act, 1908
d. Dangerous Substances Act, 1908
11. Section 1(2) of the Explosive Substances Act, 1908 provides the territorial extent as—
a. Union Territories only
b. States of India only
c. The whole of India
d. Areas notified by Central Government
12. The Act also applies to which of the following persons outside India?
a. Foreign nationals
b. Non-resident Indians
c. Citizens of India
d. Diplomats only
13. The words “applies also to citizens of India outside India” indicate—
a. Extra-territorial application
b. Only territorial application
c. Application limited to special category explosives
d. Application limited to industrial explosives
14. Section 1(2) of the Explosive Substances Act, 1908 was substituted by—
a. Act 3 of 1951
b. A.O. 1950
c. Explosives Act, 1908
d. Central Government Notification
15. The amendment in 1951 removed which words from Section 1(2)?
a. “Except Part B States”
b. “Whole of India”
c. “Citizens of India”
d. “Lawful object”
16. The words “wherever they may be” in Section 1(2) were substituted by—
a. “Except Part B States”
b. “Citizens of India outside India”
c. “Whole of India”
d. “Special category explosive substances”
17. The effect of the 1951 amendment was to—
a. Exclude Part B States from the Act
b. Include all Indian territories under the Act
c. Limit extra-territorial application
d. Change punishment provisions
18. After these amendments, Section 1(2) provides that the Act applies to—
a. Only Indian citizens within India
b. Citizens of India outside India as well
c. Foreign nationals
d. Only residents of Part A States
19. The amendment “except Part B States” being omitted signifies—
a. Restriction of application to Part A States
b. Extension of application to all states of India
c. Removal of territorial jurisdiction
d. Amendment to punishment
20. Section 2 of the Explosives Act, 1908 deals with—
a. Punishments
b. Powers of Government
c. Definitions
d. Rule-making power
21. Under Section 2(a), the expression “explosive substance” shall be deemed to include—
a. Only substances capable of explosion
b. Only finished explosives
c. Materials for making any explosive substance
d. Only notified explosives
22. The words “shall be deemed to include” used in Section 2(a) indicate that the definition of “explosive substance” is—
a. Exhaustive
b. Restrictive
c. Inclusive
d. Penal
23. Under Section 2(a), apparatus, machines or implements are included if they are—
a. Actually used for explosion only
b. Intended to be used for explosion
c. Adapted for causing or aiding in causing explosion
d. All of the above
24. The phrase “used, or intended to be used, or adapted for” in Section 2(a) shows that—
a. Actual use is mandatory
b. Intention and capability are relevant
c. Mere possession is excluded
d. Only completed acts are punishable
25. Section 2(a) covers apparatus or material used or intended to be used—
a. Independently of explosives
b. Outside explosive substances
c. In or with any explosive substance
d. Only by licensed persons
26. Under Section 2(a), which of the following is expressly included?
a. Only whole machines
b. Only functioning implements
c. Any part of any such apparatus, machine or implement
d. Only assembled devices
27. Inclusion of “any part of any such apparatus” in Section 2(a) implies that—
a. Parts are excluded
b. Only complete instruments are covered
c. Even incomplete components fall within the definition
d. Parts are included only after assembly
28. Clause (b) of Section 2 defines—
a. Explosive substance
b. Dangerous substance
c. Special category explosive substance
d. Prohibited explosive substance
29. The expression “special category explosive substance” under Section 2(b) is introduced by the words—
a. Means
b. Means and includes
c. Shall be deemed to include
d. Refers to
30. Which of the following explosives is specifically mentioned in Section 2(b)?
a. Ammonium nitrate
b. Research Development Explosive (RDX)
c. Gun powder
d. Dynamite
31. PETN, as mentioned in Section 2(b), stands for—
a. Polyethylene tri-nitrate
b. Penta erythritol tetra nitrate
c. Plastic explosive tri-nitrate
d. Phenyl ethyl tetra nitrate
32. High Melting Explosive mentioned in Section 2(b) is abbreviated as—
a. HME
b. HMX
c. HMT
d. HMP
33. TNT referred to in Section 2(b) stands for—
a. Tri nitro triazine
b. Tri nitro toluene
c. Tetra nitro toluene
d. Tri nitrate toluene
34. OCTOL, referred to in Section 2(b), is—
a. A single explosive compound
b. A low temperature explosive
c. A mixture of high melting explosive and tri nitro toluene
d. A detonator-based explosive
35. LTPE mentioned in Section 2(b) means—
a. Low temperature plastic explosive
b. Liquid type plastic explosive
c. Low toxicity power explosive
d. Limited thermal plastic explosive
36. Composition Exploding (CE) under Section 2(b) refers to—
a. Ammonium nitrate
b. 2, 4, 6 phenyl methyl nitramine or tetryl
c. TNT only
d. RDX compound
37. PEK-1 mentioned in Section 2(b) stands for—
a. Plastic explosive kirkee-1
b. Power explosive kirkee-1
c. Petroleum explosive kit-1
d. Plastic explosive kashmir-1
38. Inclusion of RDX/TNT compounds under Section 2(b) indicates that—
a. Only pure explosives are covered
b. Only individually listed explosives are covered
c. Compounds and mixtures are included
d. Only military explosives are covered
39. Which authority is empowered under Section 2(b) to specify other substances as special category explosive substances?
a. State Government
b. District Magistrate
c. Central Government
d. Supreme Court
40. Such specification by the Central Government must be made through—
a. Circular
b. Executive order
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Parliamentary resolution
41. The notification issued under Section 2(b) is for the purposes of—
a. Defence regulations
b. Criminal Procedure Code
c. This Act
d. Explosive Rules only
42. Section 3 of the Explosives Substances Act, 1908 deals with punishment for—
a. Possession of explosives
b. Illegal manufacture of explosives
c. Causing explosion likely to endanger life or property
d. Import and export of explosives
43. Section 3 applies when a person causes an explosion—
a. Accidentally
b. Negligently
c. Unlawfully and maliciously
d. Recklessly
44. The words “unlawfully and maliciously” in Section 3 indicate the requirement of—
a. Strict liability
b. Absence of mens rea
c. Presence of mens rea
d. Civil liability only
45. Clause (a) of Section 3 applies when an explosion is caused by—
a. Any dangerous substance
b. Any explosive substance
c. Any special category explosive substance
d. Any inflammable substance
46. Under Section 3(a), the nature of explosion must be such as is likely to—
a. Cause actual death
b. Destroy public property
c. Endanger life or cause serious injury to property
d. Cause fear in public
47. For punishment under Section 3(a), it is necessary that—
a. Death must have occurred
b. Injury to property must be proved
c. Actual injury to person or property must be caused
d. No actual injury need be caused
48. The phrase “whether any injury to person or property has been actually caused or not” in Section 3(a) signifies that—
a. Actual harm is irrelevant
b. Only intention is punishable
c. Punishment depends on consequences
d. Civil liability alone arises
49. The punishment prescribed under Section 3(a) includes—
a. Simple imprisonment only
b. Rigorous imprisonment for a term less than ten years
c. Imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment not less than ten years
d. Death penalty
50. Under Section 3(a), the minimum term of rigorous imprisonment is—
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Ten years
d. Twelve years
51. In addition to imprisonment under Section 3(a), the offender shall also be—
a. Released on probation
b. Liable to fine
c. Liable to forfeiture only
d. Disqualified from public office
52. Clause (b) of Section 3 applies when the explosion is caused by—
a. Any explosive substance
b. Any inflammable substance
c. Any special category explosive substance
d. Any notified substance
53. Under Section 3(b), the explosion must be of a nature likely to—
a. Cause only property damage
b. Endanger life or cause serious injury to property
c. Cause public nuisance
d. Cause economic loss
54. For punishment under Section 3(b), it is required that—
a. Death must actually occur
b. Injury to property must be proved
c. Injury to person or property must actually occur
d. No actual injury need be caused
55. The punishment prescribed under Section 3(b) includes—
a. Rigorous imprisonment up to ten years
b. Imprisonment for life only
c. Death or rigorous imprisonment for life
d. Simple imprisonment and fine
56. Which of the following correctly distinguishes Section 3(a) from Section 3(b)?
a. Section 3(a) is stricter than Section 3(b)
b. Section 3(b) involves lesser punishment
c. Section 3(b) prescribes higher punishment due to special category explosive substance
d. Both prescribe identical punishment
57. Which of the following punishments is unique to Section 3(b) and not available under Section 3(a)?
a. Fine
b. Rigorous imprisonment
c. Imprisonment for life
d. Death penalty
58. Under both clauses of Section 3, the offender shall also be—
a. Released after imprisonment
b. Liable to compensation only
c. Liable to fine
d. Disqualified from holding licence
59. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Section 3 of the Explosives Substances Act, 1908?
a. Actual injury is a sine qua non
b. Mens rea is not required
c. Nature of explosive affects the degree of punishment
d. Fine is optional
60. If an unlawful and malicious explosion is caused using a special category explosive substance, but no injury occurs, the punishment may be—
a. Simple imprisonment only
b. Rigorous imprisonment less than ten years
c. Death or rigorous imprisonment for life
d. Fine only
61. Section 3 reflects the legislative intent to—
a. Punish only actual harm
b. Penalise preparatory acts
c. Deter conduct creating grave risk to life or property
d. Regulate licensing of explosives
62. Section 4 of the Explosives Substances Act, 1908 deals with punishment for—
a. Actual causing of explosion
b. Illegal import of explosives
c. Attempt, conspiracy, or possession of explosives with intent to endanger life or property
d. Breach of licence conditions
63. Section 4 applies when a person acts—
a. Negligently
b. Accidentally
c. Unlawfully and maliciously
d. Recklessly
64. Clause (a) of Section 4 covers—
a. Actual explosion only
b. Possession of explosives without intent
c. Attempt or conspiracy to cause an explosion
d. Import and export of explosives
65. Under Section 4(a), the intent must be to cause an explosion by—
a. Explosive substance only
b. Special category explosive substance only
c. Either explosive substance or special category explosive substance
d. Any inflammable substance
66. For liability under Section 4(a), the explosion intended must be of a nature likely to—
a. Cause actual death
b. Create public panic
c. Endanger life or cause serious injury to property
d. Damage government property only
67. Which of the following mental elements is expressly covered under Section 4(a)?
a. Knowledge
b. Negligence
c. Conspiracy
d. Rashness
68. Clause (b) of Section 4 applies when a person—
a. Causes an explosion
b. Imports explosives illegally
c. Makes or has possession or control of explosives with intent
d. Transports explosives without licence
69. Under Section 4(b), possession of explosive substance must be—
a. Physical possession only
b. Joint possession only
c. Possession or control
d. Custodial possession only
70. The intent under Section 4(b) may be—
a. To endanger life
b. To cause serious injury to property
c. To enable another person to do so
d. All of the above
71. Section 4(b) specifically states that enabling another person to endanger life or property must be—
a. Anywhere in the world
b. Outside India
c. In India
d. In notified areas only
72. The phrase “shall, whether any explosion does or does not take place” in Section 4 indicates that—
a. Explosion is a mandatory ingredient
b. Attempt alone is punishable
c. Punishment depends on result
d. Only preparation is excluded
73. The phrase “whether any injury to person or property has been actually caused or not” shows that—
a. Actual injury is essential
b. Consequences determine sentence
c. Actual injury is immaterial
d. Civil liability alone arises
74. Section 4 prescribes punishment separately based on—
a. Place of offence
b. Degree of injury
c. Type of explosive used
d. Number of accused
75. Under Section 4(i), where the offence involves any explosive substance, the punishment may be—
a. Simple imprisonment only
b. Rigorous imprisonment for life only
c. Imprisonment for life or imprisonment up to ten years
d. Death penalty
76. Under Section 4(i), the imprisonment may be of—
a. Rigorous description only
b. Simple description only
c. Either description
d. Summary description
77. Under Section 4(ii), where the offence involves a special category explosive substance, the punishment may be—
a. Simple imprisonment for life
b. Rigorous imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment up to ten years
c. Death or life imprisonment
d. Imprisonment less than ten years only
78. Which of the following correctly distinguishes Section 4(i) from Section 4(ii)?
a. Section 4(ii) prescribes lesser punishment
b. Section 4(i) mandates rigorous imprisonment
c. Section 4(ii) mandates rigorous imprisonment
d. Both provide identical punishment
79. In both Section 4(i) and 4(ii), the offender shall also be—
a. Released on probation
b. Liable to compensation only
c. Liable to fine
d. Disqualified from licence
80. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Section 4?
a. Actual explosion is necessary
b. Mens rea is not required
c. Attempt and preparation are punishable
d. Only possession is punished
81. Section 4 primarily reflects the legislative intent to—
a. Punish consequences alone
b. Punish only completed offences
c. Criminalise early-stage threats to life and property
d. Regulate commercial explosives
82. Section 5 of the Explosives Substances Act, 1908 deals with—
a. Causing explosion
b. Attempt to cause explosion
c. Making or possessing explosives under suspicious circumstances
d. Import and export of explosives
83. For applicability of Section 5, the person must—
a. Accidentally possess explosives
b. Negligently possess explosives
c. Make or knowingly possess or control explosives
d. Be convicted earlier
84. The word “knowingly” in Section 5 indicates the requirement of—
a. Negligence
b. Strict liability
c. Mens rea
d. Absolute liability
85. Section 5 applies when explosives are made or possessed under circumstances giving rise to—
a. Absolute proof of guilt
b. Strong presumption of terrorism
c. Reasonable suspicion of unlawful object
d. Mere possibility of misuse
86. The suspicion under Section 5 must be that the person—
a. Intends to sell explosives
b. Is not making or possessing explosives for a lawful object
c. Is importing explosives illegally
d. Is violating licence conditions
87. Which of the following correctly states the burden of proof under Section 5?
a. Prosecution must prove unlawful object beyond doubt
b. Accused must prove innocence beyond doubt
c. Accused must show lawful object
d. Court presumes lawful possession
88. Section 5 creates a legal presumption against the accused unless—
a. He pleads guilty
b. He proves licence ownership
c. He shows lawful object
d. Prosecution withdraws charges
89. The standard imposed on the accused under Section 5 is to—
a. Disprove suspicion completely
b. Show that possession or making was for a lawful object
c. Establish absence of mens rea
d. Prove no explosion occurred
90. Which of the following best describes the nature of offence under Section 5?
a. Result-based offence
b. Consequence-dependent offence
c. Preventive offence
d. Strict liability offence without defence
91. Under Section 5(a), where the offence involves any explosive substance, punishment may extend to—
a. Life imprisonment
b. Rigorous imprisonment only
c. Imprisonment up to ten years
d. Death penalty
92. Under Section 5(a), the offender shall also be—
a. Released on probation
b. Liable to fine
c. Disqualified from licence
d. Subject to preventive detention
93. Under Section 5(b), where the offence involves a special category explosive substance, punishment may be—
a. Simple imprisonment only
b. Rigorous imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment up to ten years
c. Imprisonment less than five years
d. Death penalty
94. Which of the following correctly distinguishes Section 5(a) and Section 5(b)?
a. Section 5(a) is more severe
b. Section 5(b) mandates rigorous imprisonment
c. Section 5(a) applies only to attempts
d. Both prescribe identical punishment
95. Which type of imprisonment is prescribed under Section 5(b)?
a. Simple imprisonment
b. Either simple or rigorous
c. Rigorous imprisonment only
d. Preventive detention
96. Unlike Sections 3 and 4, Section 5—
a. Requires actual explosion
b. Requires intent to endanger life
c. Does not require proof of intended explosion
d. Applies only after injury occurs
97. Section 5 criminalises possession primarily on the basis of—
a. Actual harm
b. Quantity of explosives
c. Suspicious circumstances
d. Public alarm
98. Which of the following is NOT required to be proved by the prosecution under Section 5?
a. Making or possession of explosives
b. Knowledge of possession
c. Suspicious circumstances
d. Absence of lawful object
99. Section 5 embodies which important principle of criminal law?
a. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
b. Reverse burden of proof
c. Doctrine of necessity
d. Vicarious liability
100. Which Sections of the Explosives Substances Act, 1908 together reflect a graded preventive framework?
a. Sections 1–2
b. Sections 3, 4 and 5
c. Sections 6–7
d. Sections 8–9
101. The primary object of Section 5 is to—
a. Punish completed terrorist acts
b. Regulate industrial explosives
c. Prevent potential misuse of explosives at an early stage
d. Penalise licensing violations
102. Section 6 of the Explosives Substances Act, 1908 deals with—
a. Attempt to commit offences
b. Punishment for conspiracy
c. Punishment of abettors
d. Punishment for suspicious possession
103. Which of the following acts is expressly mentioned in Section 6 as constituting abetment?
a. Financing through banking channels
b. Supply or solicitation for money
c. Mere silence
d. Failure to report
104. Section 6 specifically includes which of the following as a mode of abetment?
a. Threatening a public servant
b. Providing premises
c. Spreading propaganda
d. Possession under suspicion
105. The phrase “supply of materials” in Section 6 refers to—
a. Only explosive substances
b. Only special category explosive substances
c. Any materials aiding commission of offence
d. Only raw materials
106. The expression “in any manner whatsoever” in Section 6 signifies—
a. Limited modes of abetment
b. Exhaustive enumeration
c. Broad and inclusive scope
d. Judicial discretion only
107. Which of the following verbs is NOT used in Section 6?
a. Procures
b. Counsels
c. Commands
d. Aids
108. Section 6 makes liable a person who is—
a. Only a principal offender
b. Only a conspirator
c. An accessory to the commission of an offence
d. A mere witness
109. The term “accessory” in Section 6 indicates liability of—
a. Only accessories after the fact
b. Only accessories before the fact
c. Accessories in any form
d. Only conspirators
110. For punishment under Section 6, the abettor shall be punished with—
a. Half of the punishment of the main offence
b. Lesser punishment than the principal offender
c. The same punishment as provided for the offence
d. Fine only
111. Section 6 reflects which principle of criminal law?
a. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
b. Equality of punishment for abettor and principal offender
c. Strict liability
d. Vicarious liability
112. Under Section 6, it is necessary that the abettor—
a. Personally causes explosion
b. Is present at the scene
c. Abets commission of any offence under the Act
d. Is convicted separately first
113. Section 6 does NOT require proof of—
a. Abetment
b. Connection with the offence
c. Specific mode of assistance
d. Independent punishment provision
114. Which of the following best characterises Section 6?
a. A substantive offence provision
b. A procedural provision
c. A punishment-equalisation provision
d. A definition clause
115. Section 7 of the Explosives Substances Act, 1908 imposes a restriction on—
a. Investigation of offences
b. Cognizance of offences
c. Trial of offences
d. Arrest of accused
116. As per Section 7, no court shall proceed to the trial of any person for an offence under the Act except with the consent of the—
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. District Magistrate
d. Public Prosecutor
17. The bar under Section 7 operates at which stage?
a. Registration of FIR
b. Investigation
c. Trial
d. Sentencing