1. The introductory part of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 primarily emphasizes—
a. Revenue collection by police
b. Promotion and protection of human rights
c. Expansion of police powers
d. Military administration
2. According to the introduction, the first responsibility of the law is—
a. Maintenance of police discipline
b. Protection of human rights and civil liberties of individuals
c. Revenue collection
d. Judicial administration
3. The State has a constitutional responsibility to provide—
a. A private security system
b. An impartial and capable police service
c. A military force
d. A revenue enforcement agency
4. The police service must particularly protect the interests of—
a. Government officers
b. Political leaders
c. Weaker sections of society including minorities
d. Industrial establishments
5. According to the introduction, police personnel should be—
a. Politically controlled
b. Professionally organized and service oriented
c. Dependent on private agencies
d. Controlled by local bodies
6. The introduction states that police personnel must be free from—
a. Judicial oversight
b. Outside influences
c. Public accountability
d. Legal control
7. The Act emphasizes redefining the role of police in view of—
a. Changes in revenue laws
b. Emerging challenges, security of the state and good governance
c. Judicial reforms
d. Administrative decentralization
8. The Act seeks to strengthen the police to make it—
a. Militarized and autonomous
b. Efficient, effective, people-friendly and accountable
c. Politically responsive
d. Economically independent
9. One objective of the Act is to establish and manage—
a. The judiciary
b. The police service
c. The civil service
d. The military forces
10. The Bihar Police Act, 2007 was enacted by—
a. Parliament of India
b. Bihar State Legislature
c. Governor of Bihar
d. High Court of Patna
11. The Act was enacted in the ______ year of the Republic of India.
a. Fifty-sixth
b. Fifty-seventh
c. Fifty-eighth
d. Fifty-ninth
12. The provision relating to the short title, extent and commencement of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 is contained in—
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
13. The official short title of the Act is—
a. Bihar Police Code, 2007
b. Bihar Police Regulation Act, 2007
c. The Bihar Police Act, 2007
d. Bihar Law and Order Act, 2007
14. The Bihar Police Act, 2007 comes into force—
a. On the date of its passing by the Legislature
b. On the date specified by the High Court
c. On such date as the State Government may appoint by notification
d. Immediately after publication in the Gazette
15. The commencement of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 is determined through—
a. Executive order
b. Notification issued by the State Government
c. Judicial order
d. Legislative resolution
16. The Bihar Police Act, 2007 extends to—
a. Only metropolitan areas of Bihar
b. Only rural areas of Bihar
c. The whole of the State of Bihar
d. Selected districts notified by the Government
17. Which authority appoints the date for commencement of the Bihar Police Act, 2007?
a. Governor of Bihar
b. State Government
c. High Court of Patna
d. Bihar Legislative Assembly
18. The provision regarding extent ensures that the Act applies to—
a. Only police stations in Bihar
b. Only government institutions
c. Entire territorial jurisdiction of the State of Bihar
d. Only municipal areas
19. Section 2 of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 primarily deals with which of the following?
a. Powers of police officers
b. Definitions used in the Act
c. Appointment of police officers
d. Duties of the police
20. According to Section 2(1), the definitions provided in the Act apply in which circumstance?
a. In all situations without exception
b. Only during criminal investigations
c. Unless the context otherwise requires
d. Only when notified by the State Government
21. Under Section 2(1)(a), the term “Act” refers to which of the following?
a. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. The Bihar Police Manual
c. The Bihar Police Act, 2007
d. The Indian Police Act, 1861
22. Which of the following animals is specifically included within the definition of “Cattle” under Section 2(1)(b)?
a. Dog
b. Camel
c. Buffalo only
d. Donkey
23. According to Section 2(1)(b), which of the following is included in the definition of “Cattle”?
a. Sheep
b. Goat
c. Pig
d. All of the above
24. Which one of the following animals is NOT mentioned in the definition of “Cattle” under Section 2(1)(b)?
a. Elephant
b. Pony
c. Goat
d. Dog
25. Under Section 2(1)(c), the term “Rebel” refers to which of the following?
a. Any protest against the government
b. Armed struggle including political design against the State aimed at disintegration of any part of India
c. Any political movement against the State Government
d. Any unlawful assembly
26. The objective associated with the term “Rebel” under Section 2(1)(c) is to:
a. Overthrow the local government
b. Disintegrate any part of India
c. Influence elections
d. Oppose police administration
27. According to Section 2(1)(d), “Internal security” refers to protection of the sovereignty and integrity of the State from:
a. Foreign armies
b. Separatists and anti-national elements within the State
c. International organizations
d. Natural disasters
28. “Militant activity” under Section 2(1)(e) includes violent activities carried out using which of the following?
a. Explosives
b. Firearms
c. Hazardous materials
d. All of the above
29. The violent activities included in “Militant activity” are carried out primarily to achieve:
a. Economic development
b. Social welfare objectives
c. Political objectives
d. Religious reforms
30. According to Section 2(1)(f), “Organized Crimes” involve crimes committed by:
a. A single individual acting alone
b. Any government official
c. A group or network of individuals
d. Only foreign nationals
31. Organized crimes under Section 2(1)(f) typically involve which of the following methods?
a. Violent methods
b. Threats of violence
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Peaceful protests
32. The purpose behind committing “Organized Crimes” under Section 2(1)(f) is generally to obtain:
a. Political recognition
b. Illegal benefits
c. Administrative authority
d. Electoral support
33. According to Section 2(1)(g), “Terrorist Activities” may be carried out by:
a. Only a group of individuals
b. Only foreign nationals
c. Any individual or any group
d. Only militant organizations
34. Which of the following materials may be used in “Terrorist Activities” under Section 2(1)(g)?
a. Explosives
b. Firearms
c. Hazardous gases or chemicals
d. All of the above
35. The primary objective of “Terrorist Activities” under Section 2(1)(g) is to:
a. Spread awareness in society
b. Spread terror in society and destabilize a legitimate government
c. Influence economic policy
d. Promote political campaigns
36. “Cyber Crimes” under Section 2(1)(h) mainly relate to offences connected with:
a. Banking law
b. Information technology
c. Taxation systems
d. Property transactions
37. Illegal access referred to in the definition of Cyber Crimes means:
a. Access permitted by the system administrator
b. Authorized access to a database
c. Unauthorized access to a computer system
d. Access after paying a government fee
38. Illegal transfer of data to or from a computer system through technical means is termed as:
a. Illegal access
b. Illegal obstruction
c. Data recovery
d. Data encryption
39. Which of the following actions amounts to “interception of data” under Section 2(1)(h)?
a. Legal backup of data
b. Illegal loss, deletion, change, or hiding of computer data
c. Authorized system update
d. Encryption for security
40. Which of the following is specifically included within Cyber Crimes under Section 2(1)(h)?
a. Misuse of instruments
b. Theft of ID
c. Electronic offences
d. All of the above
41. “Moral Turpitude” under Section 2(1)(i) includes crimes involving:
a. Violence
b. Fraud or deceit
c. Peddling of drugs
d. All of the above
42. A crime will fall within “Moral Turpitude” if the punishment prescribed is:
a. One year or more
b. Two years or more
c. Three years or more
d. Five years or more
43. The term “Government” under Section 2(1)(j) refers to:
a. Central Government
b. Union Government
c. State Government of Bihar
d. Any local authority
44. “Chief Secretary” under Section 2(1)(k) means:
a. Secretary of the Home Department
b. Chief Secretary of the Government
c. Director General of Police
d. Cabinet Secretary of India
45. A “Place of public amusement and public entertainment” means a place where:
a. Entry is allowed only with payment of fee
b. Entry is allowed only without fee
c. People can enter with or without paying a fee
d. Entry is restricted to members only
46. Which of the following places is specifically included in the definition of a place of public amusement or entertainment?
a. Picture hall
b. Theatre
c. Stadium
d. All of the above
47. A “Police district” under Section 2(1)(m) refers to:
a. A revenue district notified by the State Government
b. A tract notified under Section 7 of Chapter II of the Act
c. A district defined under the CrPC
d. A district created by municipal authorities
48. A police district under the Act is:
a. Always identical to the revenue district
b. Always smaller than a revenue district
c. Different from the revenue district
d. Created by the High Court
49. According to Section 2(1)(n), a “Police officer” means:
a. Any government employee assisting police
b. Any member of the Bihar Police Service constituted under the Act
c. Only officers above the rank of Inspector
d. Members of central armed police forces
50. According to Section 2(1)(o), a “Public place” refers to a place:
a. Accessible only to government officials
b. Accessible only with prior permission of the police
c. Where people can enter
d. Reserved only for private use
51. Which of the following is included in the definition of “Public place” under Section 2(1)(o)?
a. Public buildings and monuments and their precincts
b. Private residential houses
c. Private corporate offices
d. Only government offices
52. A place accessible to the public for drawing water, washing, bathing or recreation is considered a:
a. Restricted area
b. Public place
c. Government premises
d. Protected monument
53. The term “Regulation” under Section 2(1)(p) means:
a. Regulations issued by the High Court
b. Regulations made under this Act
c. Rules issued by the Central Government
d. Government orders issued under CrPC
54. The term “Rule” under Section 2(1)(q) refers to:
a. Rules made under this Act
b. Rules made under the Constitution
c. Rules made by district administration
d. Rules issued by courts
55. The term “Magistrate” under Section 2(1)(r) refers to:
a. Any judicial officer
b. Any police officer of Inspector rank
c. Executive Magistrate as defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure
d. District Judge
56. The District Magistrate under Section 2(1)(s) is appointed by:
a. High Court
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. Governor acting independently
57. A District Magistrate under the Act may be appointed for:
a. Only one district
b. Only metropolitan districts
c. One or more districts
d. Only rural districts
58. A Sub-Divisional Magistrate under Section 2(1)(t) refers to:
a. A judicial magistrate appointed by High Court
b. A sub-divisional officer appointed for one or more subdivisions by the Government
c. A police officer of DSP rank
d. A municipal officer
59. The term “District Superintendent of Police” under Section 2(1)(u) includes:
a. Only the officer formally designated as SP
b. Any Assistant District Superintendent of Police
c. Any person appointed to perform duties of SP under the Act
d. Both (b) and (c)
60. Under the definition of District Superintendent of Police, the term district may include:
a. Railway district
b. Municipal district
c. Revenue district only
d. Judicial district
61. The term “Property” under Section 2(1)(v) includes:
a. Movable property
b. Immovable property
c. Bank accounts and investments
d. All of the above
62. Which of the following is specifically included in the definition of property under the Act?
a. Valuable securities
b. Only land and buildings
c. Only bank deposits
d. Only government assets
63. The term “District” under Section 2(1)(w) refers to:
a. Any police administrative division
b. Revenue land notified as district under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. District notified under the Constitution
d. Municipal district
64. The “Power of superintendence” under Section 2(1)(x) includes which of the following powers?
a. Power to direct and guide
b. Power to issue instructions in executive and administrative matters relating to investigation
c. Power to modify or revise administrative orders
d. All of the above
65. Power of superintendence includes powers relating to:
a. Legislative matters
b. Judicial pronouncements
c. Executive and administrative matters relating to investigation
d. Constitutional amendments
66. The power of superintendence includes the authority to modify or revise administrative orders issued under:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Civil Procedure Code, 1908
d. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
67. According to Section 2(1)(y), the term “Post” includes:
a. Only superintending posts
b. Only subordinate posts
c. Both subordinate posts and superintending posts
d. Only posts created by the Central Government
68. A “Superintending Post” under Section 2(1)(z) refers to posts of which rank and above?
a. Inspector of Police
b. Deputy/Assistant Superintendent of Police
c. Sub-Inspector of Police
d. Director General of Police only
69. Which of the following posts would fall within the definition of “Superintending Post”?
a. Deputy Superintendent of Police
b. Assistant Superintendent of Police
c. Any rank above these posts
d. All of the above
70. According to Section 2(1)(za), a “Subordinate Post” includes which of the following ranks?
a. Assistant Superintendent of Police
b. Deputy Superintendent of Police
c. Member of lower rank
d. All of the above
71. Which of the following is specifically mentioned within the definition of “Subordinate Post”?
a. Director General of Police
b. Inspector General of Police
c. Member of lower rank
d. Chief Secretary
72. The term “Prescribed” under Section 2(1)(zb) means:
a. Prescribed by courts through judgments
b. Prescribed by the Government through rule, order, circular, or notification
c. Prescribed by the Director General of Police
d. Prescribed by the State Legislature only
73. Which of the following methods may be used by the Government to prescribe something under the Act?
a. Rule
b. Circular
c. Notification
d. All of the above
74. According to Section 2(2), words and expressions used in the Act shall have the same meaning as assigned in which of the following Acts?
a. General Clauses Act, 1897
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Indian Penal Code, 1860
d. All of the above
75. Which of the following statutes is specifically referred to in Section 2(2) for interpreting words and expressions used in the Act?
a. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
b. General Clauses Act, 1897
c. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
d. Information Technology Act, 2000
76. Words not specifically defined in the Bihar Police Act, 2007 will be interpreted according to meanings given in:
a. Relevant general statutes like CrPC and IPC
b. Only the Constitution of India
c. Only police manuals
d. Only state government orders
77. Section 3 of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 deals with which of the following?
a. Appointment of Director General of Police
b. Police Service of the State
c. Police districts
d. Powers of District Magistrate
78. Under Section 3 of the Act, the whole police organisation under the Government shall be treated as:
a. Separate police units for each district
b. One police service
c. Independent police forces for each branch
d. A centralised armed police unit
79. The police organisation treated as one police service under Section 3 functions under:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. High Court
80. Members of the Police Service under Section 3 may be posted:
a. Only in district police offices
b. Only in investigation branches
c. In any branch of the Police Service in the State
d. Only in armed police units
81. According to Section 3, members of the Police Service may also be posted in:
a. Judicial branches only
b. Special branches of the Police Service
c. Central armed forces
d. Municipal departments
82. The posting of members of the Police Service under Section 3 may take place:
a. Only within their original unit
b. Only within the district where they were recruited
c. In any branch including special branches in the State
d. Only in headquarters
83. Section 4 of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 deals with:
a. Police districts
b. Constitution of the Police Service
c. Powers of the District Magistrate
d. Duties of police officers
84. Under Section 4, the whole police organisation under the Government shall be treated as:
a. Separate district police units
b. One Police Service
c. Independent armed forces
d. Central police organisation
85. The Police Service constituted under Section 4 shall contain which of the following?
a. Officers
b. Police personnel
c. Police force for special purposes
d. All of the above
86. Which of the following forces is specifically mentioned as a special category under Section 4?
a. Central Reserve Police Force
b. Bihar Armed Police
c. Border Security Force
d. Central Industrial Security Force
87. Which special force mentioned in Section 4 may be constituted for controlling riots?
a. Railway Protection Force
b. Anti-riot combined force
c. Home Guards
d. Intelligence Bureau
88. The Police Service under Section 4 shall be constituted in such manner as ordered by:
a. Director General of Police
b. State Legislature
c. Government from time to time
d. High Court
89. The salary and allowances of police personnel under Section 4 shall be determined by:
a. High Court rules
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. Finance Commission
90. The service conditions of police personnel under Section 4 are determined by the Government through:
a. Rules
b. Notifications
c. Orders
d. All of the above
91. The Government may determine salary, allowances and service conditions of police personnel:
a. Only once at the time of appointment
b. From time to time
c. Every five years only
d. Only by amendment of the Act
92. Section 5 of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 deals with:
a. Police districts
b. Appointment of senior police officers
c. Powers of police officers
d. Constitution of special police forces
93. According to Section 5(1), the Director General of Police shall be appointed by:
a. The President of India
b. The Governor independently
c. The State Government
d. The High Court
94. The officer appointed under Section 5(1) to head the police force is:
a. Inspector General of Police
b. Director General of Police
c. Deputy Inspector General
d. Chief Secretary
95. The Director General of Police shall exercise powers and perform functions and duties which are:
a. Determined by the Government
b. Determined by the High Court
c. Determined by the District Magistrate
d. Determined by the Central Government
96. The powers and responsibilities of the Director General of Police are:
a. Fixed permanently in the Constitution
b. Determined by the Government
c. Decided by the judiciary
d. Determined by the police headquarters
97. According to Section 5(2), the Government may appoint how many Additional Directors General of Police?
a. Only one
b. Not more than two
c. One or more than one
d. Only three
98. Under Section 5(2), which of the following officers may be appointed by the Government?
a. Additional Director General
b. Inspector General
c. Deputy Inspector General
d. All of the above
99. The number of Inspectors General, Deputy Inspectors General and Assistant Inspectors General appointed under Section 5 shall be:
a. Fixed by the Constitution
b. Determined by the High Court
c. As the Government may deem fit
d. Determined by Parliament
100. The power to appoint Additional Director Generals and other senior police officers under Section 5 is vested in:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. Director General of Police
101. Section 6 of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 deals with:
a. Powers of the Director General of Police
b. Selection and tenure of the Director General of Police
c. Appointment of police personnel
d. Duties of the police force
102. According to Section 6(1), the Director General of Police shall be appointed from:
a. Any senior police officer in the State
b. A panel of officers
c. Officers nominated by the High Court
d. Officers recommended by the District Magistrate
103. The panel for appointment of Director General of Police may include:
a. Officers already working at the rank of Director General of Police
b. Officers found suitable for promotion to the post of Director General of Police
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only officers recommended by the Central Government
104. The officers suitable for promotion to the post of Director General of Police are identified by a committee constituted under:
a. Police Act, 1861
b. All India Services Act, 1951
c. Indian Penal Code, 1860
d. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
105. The normal tenure of the Director General of Police under Section 6(2) is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
106. The Director General of Police may be transferred before completion of tenure by:
a. High Court
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. District Magistrate
107. The Director General of Police may be transferred before completing tenure if:
a. He is convicted by a court for a punishable offence
b. He is charge-sheeted in a corruption case or a case involving moral turpitude
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only if he resigns voluntarily
108. Premature transfer of the Director General of Police may take place if he becomes incapable of performing duties due to:
a. Physical ailment
b. Mental ailment
c. Any other reason making him unable to discharge duties
d. All of the above
109. The Director General of Police may be transferred before completing tenure if:
a. He is promoted to a higher post under the State or Union Government with his consent
b. He completes two years of service
c. The High Court directs transfer
d. The District Magistrate requests transfer
110. The Government may transfer the Director General of Police before completion of tenure for:
a. Political reasons only
b. Any administrative reason favouring effective discharge of duty
c. Only disciplinary reasons
d. Only financial irregularities
111. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a ground for premature transfer of the Director General of Police under Section 6?
a. Conviction by a court
b. Physical or mental incapacity
c. Administrative reasons for effective discharge of duty
d. Change of government after elections
112. Section 7 of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 deals with:
a. Appointment of police officers
b. Constitution of police service
c. Police districts
d. Duties of police officers
113. Under Section 7, a police district may be declared by:
a. District Magistrate
b. State Government
c. Director General of Police
d. High Court
114. The declaration of an area as a police district is made through:
a. Government order
b. Notification
c. Circular
d. Resolution
115. The police administration of a police district is vested in:
a. District Magistrate
b. Inspector General of Police
c. Superintendent of Police
d. Deputy Superintendent of Police
116. The Superintendent of Police administers the police district under the:
a. Direct control of the High Court
b. General control and superintendence of the District Magistrate
c. Control of the Chief Secretary
d. Supervision of the Central Government
117. In the administration of a police district, the Superintendent of Police may be assisted by:
a. Additional Superintendent of Police
b. Assistant Superintendent of Police
c. Deputy Superintendent of Police
d. All of the above
118. The officers assisting the Superintendent of Police in a police district are appointed as:
a. Deemed fit and notified
b. Recommended by the High Court
c. Selected by the District Magistrate only
d. Chosen by local administration
119. Under Section 7, the police administration of a police district operates:
a. Independently of civil administration
b. Under general control of the District Magistrate
c. Only under the Director General of Police
d. Under the Chief Secretary
120. Section 8 of the Bihar Police Act, 2007 deals with:
a. Police districts
b. Police stations
c. Duties of police officers
d. Appointment of police personnel
121. Under Section 8(1), police stations may be set up by:
a. District Magistrate
b. State Government
c. Director General of Police
d. Superintendent of Police
122. The establishment of police stations under Section 8(1) is made through:
a. Government notification
b. Administrative order of SP
c. High Court direction
d. Local government resolution
123. While setting up police stations, the Government considers which of the following factors?
a. Area status of crime
b. Law and order duties
c. Distance covered by the public to reach the police station
d. All of the above
124. The Government may also establish which of the following along with police stations?
a. Police posts
b. Intelligence units
c. Military units
d. Revenue offices
125. For the purpose of control and supervision, how many police stations may be placed under one police circle?
a. Only one police station
b. Two or more police stations
c. Only three police stations
d. Only five police stations
126. The head of a police station is known as the:
a. Circle Officer
b. Station House Officer
c. District Superintendent
d. Chief Inspector
127. The Station House Officer shall not be below the rank of:
a. Constable
b. Head Constable
c. Sub-Inspector of Police
d. Inspector General
128. A large police station may be placed under the supervision of an officer of the rank of:
a. Deputy Superintendent of Police
b. Inspector of Police
c. Additional Superintendent of Police
d. Assistant Sub-Inspector
129. The number of police personnel posted in a police station shall be determined by:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. District Magistrate
c. State Government
d. High Court
130. The number of police personnel in a police station may be determined by the Government through:
a. General or special order
b. Judicial order
c. Parliamentary resolution
d. Municipal notification
131. For filing complaints of crimes against women and children, each police station shall have:
a. Juvenile court desk
b. Women and Children Protection Desk
c. Family welfare desk
d. Social justice cell
132. The Women and Children Protection Desk in police stations deals with:
a. Only civil disputes
b. Complaints of crimes against women and children and administration of related special laws
c. Traffic offences
d. Revenue matters
133. As far as possible, the Women and Children Protection Desk should have:
a. Retired officers
b. Judicial officers
c. Women police personnel
d. Volunteers from NGOs
134. Each police station shall clearly display the guidance issued by the:
a. State Legislature
b. High Court
c. Supreme Court
d. District Magistrate