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There are 7 Sets of MCQs available for Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, you are advised to explore all the sets :
1. When stopping an animal or conveyance becomes necessary, Section 49 authorises the officer to:
a. Use only minimal force
b. Stop it only through written orders
c. Use all lawful means for stopping it
d. Use force only after magistrate approval
2. Under Section 49, firing upon the animal or conveyance is permitted:
a. Only after issuing a written warning
b. Only when lawful means of stopping fail
c. As the first method of stopping
d. Only in case of aircraft
3. Section 50 of the NDPS Act becomes applicable when a search of a person is conducted under which provisions?
a. Sections 43 and 49
b. Sections 41 and 42 only
c. Sections 41, 42 and 43
d. Sections 42 and 43 only
4. The obligation to take the person to a Gazetted Officer or Magistrate under Section 50(1) arises:
a. Only in cases involving commercial quantity
b. Only when the officer considers it necessary
c. Only if the person to be searched so requires
d. Automatically in every personal search
5. Under Section 50(1), the person to be searched may be taken to which of the following authorities?
a. Any Gazetted Officer
b. Any Judicial Officer
c. Superintendent of Police or Executive Magistrate
d. Gazetted Officer of departments mentioned in Section 42 or nearest Magistrate
6. Pending production before the Gazetted Officer or Magistrate under Section 50(1), the authorised officer may:
a. Conduct search immediately
b. Seize goods without search
c. Detain the person
d. Release the person on bond
7. When a person is produced before a Gazetted Officer or Magistrate under Section 50(3), such authority shall discharge the person if:
a. Officer fails to justify suspicion
b. Consent for search is withdrawn
c. Search appears inconvenient
d. No reasonable ground for search exists
8. If the Gazetted Officer or Magistrate under Section 50(3) finds reasonable grounds for search, he shall:
a. Authorise arrest without search
b. Conduct the search himself
c. Order detention of the person
d. Direct that the search be made
9. Which of the following is an absolute mandate under Section 50(4)?
a. Search must be conducted in presence of witnesses
b. No female shall be searched except by a female
c. Search must be conducted only by a Gazetted Officer
d. Search must be videographed
10. The exceptional power under Section 50(5) permitting immediate personal search may be exercised when the officer has reason to believe that:
a. The offence is grave
b. Delay may cause escape
c. Magistrate is unavailable
d. The person may part with possession of contraband, article or document
11. When a search is conducted under Section 50(5), it must be carried out in accordance with:
a. Section 165 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. Section 42 of the NDPS Act
c. Section 100 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Section 43 of the NDPS Act
12. After conducting a search under Section 50(5), the officer is statutorily required under Section 50(6) to:
a. Obtain post-facto approval from Gazetted Officer
b. Inform the Magistrate within 24 hours
c. Record reasons and send them to the court
d. Record reasons and send a copy to his immediate official superior within 72 hours
13. The power to undertake controlled delivery under Section 50A vests primarily in:
a. Any Gazetted Officer of the Central Government
b. Director General of Narcotics Control Bureau or an officer authorised by him
c. Central Government only
d. Any officer empowered under Section 42
14. The Director General referred to in Section 50A is the head of a Bureau constituted under which provision of the NDPS Act?
a. Section 4(1)
b. Section 5
c. Section 4(3)
d. Section 3
15. The power under Section 50A can be exercised by an officer other than the Director General only if:
a. He is a Gazetted Officer
b. He is authorised by the Central Government
c. He is authorised by a Magistrate
d. He is authorised by the Director General of the Narcotics Control Bureau
16. Section 50A begins with a non obstante clause. The effect of this clause is that the power of controlled delivery may be exercised:
a. Only after obtaining prior judicial sanction
b. Only in exceptional circumstances
c. Subject to the provisions of the NDPS Act
d. Notwithstanding anything contained in the NDPS Act
17. Controlled delivery under Section 50A may relate to a consignment destined to:
a. Only places within India
b. Border areas notified by the Central Government
c. Only foreign countries
d. India or a foreign country
18. Controlled delivery of a consignment to a foreign country under Section 50A is conditional upon:
a. Prior approval of the Central Government
b. Intimation to Interpol
c. Prior sanction of a Special Court
d. Consultation with the competent authority of the destination foreign country
19. The expression “competent authority” in clause (b) of Section 50A refers to:
a. Any law enforcement agency of the foreign country
b. An international organisation nominated by India
c. The authority of the foreign country to which the consignment is destined
d. A judicial authority of the foreign country
20. The manner in which controlled delivery under Section 50A is to be undertaken is to be governed by:
a. Orders issued by the Director General
b. Directions of the Special Court
c. Provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Rules or procedure as may be prescribed
21. Section 51 of the NDPS Act provides for the application of which procedural law to actions taken under the Act?
a. Evidence Act, 1872
b. Special Courts Act
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Indian Penal Code, 1860
22. The provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure apply under Section 51 to which of the following?
a. Searches and seizures only
b. Trials and sentencing only
c. Warrants issued and arrests made only
d. Warrants, arrests, searches and seizures
23. The applicability of the Code of Criminal Procedure under Section 51 is subject to which condition?
a. Compliance with international conventions
b. Prior sanction of the Central Government
c. Non-inconsistency with the provisions of the NDPS Act
d. Absence of specific NDPS provisions
24. The obligation to inform a person of the grounds of arrest under Section 52(1) arises when the arrest is made under which provisions of the NDPS Act?
a. Sections 41 and 42 only
b. Sections 42 and 44 only
c. Sections 41, 42, 43 and 44
d. Sections 41, 42 and 43 only
25. The phrase “as soon as may be” in Section 52(1) governs the duty of the arresting officer to:
a. Produce the accused before a Magistrate
b. Record reasons for arrest
c. Forward seized articles
d. Inform the person of the grounds of arrest
26. Section 52(2) applies specifically to arrests and seizures made pursuant to:
a. Any arrest under the NDPS Act
b. Warrant issued under Section 41(1)
c. Authorisation under Section 41(2)
d. Arrest under Section 42 without warrant
27. Where a person is arrested and articles are seized under a warrant issued under Section 41(1), such person and articles shall be forwarded without unnecessary delay to:
a. Officer empowered under Section 53
b. Special Court having jurisdiction
c. Magistrate who issued the warrant
d. Officer-in-charge of nearest police station
28. Section 52(3) governs forwarding of persons arrested and articles seized under which provisions?
a. Section 41(1) only
b. Sections 42 and 43 only
c. Section 41(2), Section 42, Section 43 or Section 44
d. All sections of the NDPS Act
29. Under Section 52(3), the arrested person or seized article may be forwarded to which of the following authorities?
a. Only the nearest Magistrate
b. Superintendent of Police
c. Only the officer empowered under Section 53
d. Officer-in-charge of nearest police station or officer empowered under Section 53
30. The phrase “without unnecessary delay” appearing in Sections 52(2) and 52(3) primarily reflects which constitutional safeguard?
a. Right against self-incrimination
b. Protection against arbitrary detention
c. Right to speedy trial
d. Right to legal representation
31. The duty under Section 52(4) is cast upon:
a. The arresting officer alone
b. The Special Court
c. The Magistrate before whom the accused is produced
d. The authority or officer to whom the person or article is forwarded
32. Under Section 52(4), the authority or officer receiving the person or article is required to act:
a. Immediately and compulsorily
b. Within 24 hours
c. After obtaining judicial approval
d. With all convenient despatch
33. The power to specify narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances, controlled substances or conveyances for early disposal under Section 52A(1) vests in:
a. The Director General, NCB
b. The State Government
c. The Central Government
d. The Special Court
34. The specification under Section 52A(1) is required to be made by the Central Government through:
a. Executive instructions
b. Rules framed under the Act
c. Circulars issued by NCB
d. Notification in the Official Gazette
35. Disposal under Section 52A(1) must be carried out:
a. Only after conviction
b. Immediately after seizure
c. Only after framing of charge
d. As soon as may be after seizure
36. The manner and the officer by whom disposal under Section 52A(1) is to be carried out shall be determined by:
a. The Magistrate
b. The officer empowered under Section 53
c. The Special Court
d. The Central Government from time to time
37. Section 52A(2) becomes applicable when seized items are forwarded to:
a. Only the Magistrate
b. Officer-in-charge of nearest police station or officer empowered under Section 53
c. Only the Special Court
d. Any Gazetted Officer
38. Under Section 52A(2), preparation of an inventory is mandatory in respect of which items?
a. Only controlled substances
b. Only narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
c. Only conveyances
d. Narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances, controlled substances and conveyances
39. Which of the following particulars may form part of the inventory under Section 52A(2)?
a. Description, quality and quantity
b. Mode of packing, marks and numbers
c. Country of origin
d. All of the above
40. Upon an application being made under Section 52A(2), the Magistrate is required under Section 52A(3) to:
a. Conduct a detailed inquiry
b. Decide the application within 30 days
c. Allow the application as soon as may be
d. Record reasons before allowing the application
41. Section 52A(4) creates a statutory exception overriding which laws?
a. Indian Penal Code only
b. Code of Criminal Procedure only
c. Indian Evidence Act only
d. Indian Evidence Act and Code of Criminal Procedure
42. Under Section 52A(4), which of the following shall be treated as primary evidence by the trial court?
a. Seized contraband produced physically before court
b. Chemical analyst’s report alone
c. Inventory, photographs and list of samples certified by the Magistrate
d. Panchnama prepared by the seizing officer
43. Under Section 53(1), the power to invest officers of certain departments with police station powers vests in:
a. The State Government only
b. The Director General, NCB
c. Both Central and State Government simultaneously
d. The Central Government only
44. The Central Government under Section 53(1) must consult which authority before issuing a notification?
a. Director General, NCB
b. Special Court
c. State Government
d. Supreme Court
45. The notification under Section 53(1) must be published in:
a. Departmental circulars
b. Local newspapers
c. Internet portal only
d. Official Gazette
46. Under Section 53(1), officers of which of the following departments may be invested with powers of an officer-in-charge of a police station?
a. Central Excise, Narcotics, Customs, Revenue Intelligence
b. Para-military forces or armed forces
c. Any other department of the Central Government
d. All of the above
47. The purpose of investing officers under Section 53(1) is to enable them to:
a. Execute confiscation orders
b. Conduct trials under the NDPS Act
c. Investigate offences under the NDPS Act
d. Enforce punishment under NDPS Act
48. Section 53(2) confers similar powers on officers of which authority?
a. Central Government departments only
b. Private agencies approved by State Government
c. State Government departments only
d. Both Central and State Government departments
49. Under Section 53(2), the State Government may invest officers of which departments?
a. Drugs Control, Revenue, Excise
b. Only Police Department
c. Any other department
d. Both A and C
50. The legal effect of a notification under Section 53 is to:
a. Allow officers to act as Magistrates
b. Confer powers equivalent to an officer-in-charge of a police station
c. Authorise officers to arrest without warrant
d. Empower officers to conduct trials
51. Section 53A applies to statements made before which officer?
a. Any Gazetted Officer
b. Any officer empowered under Section 42
c. Any Magistrate
d. Any officer empowered under Section 53 for investigation of offences
52. The statement referred to in Section 53A(1) must be:
a. Oral only
b. Recorded in presence of a Magistrate
c. Made and signed by the person
d. Written only
53. Section 53A(1)(a) ensures the admissibility of statements when:
a. The witness refuses to testify voluntarily
b. The statement contains hearsay only
c. The statement is made during trial
d. The witness is unavailable for reasons beyond control or due to adversarial obstruction
54. Under Section 53A(1)(b), a statement made by a person may be admitted even if the person is present in court, provided that:
a. The statement is identical to oral testimony
b. The witness has not been cross-examined
c. The witness is hostile
d. The court considers it necessary in the interest of justice
55. The primary purpose of Section 53A is to:
a. Enable cross-examination of witnesses
b. Establish prima facie guilt
c. Substitute for expert evidence
d. Ensure the relevance of statements when witnesses are unavailable or in the interest of justice
56. Section 53A(2) extends the applicability of subsection (1) to:
a. Only proceedings before Special Courts
b. Only proceedings before Magistrates
c. International proceedings
d. Any proceedings under the NDPS Act or rules/orders made thereunder, other than a proceeding before a court
57. Section 54 of the NDPS Act creates a presumption in trials regarding:
a. The possession of illicit articles
b. The intention to commit an offence
c. The motive behind the offence
d. The identity of the offender
58. The presumption under Section 54 operates:
a. Only after conviction
b. Unless and until the contrary is proved
c. Only if the accused is a first-time offender
d. Only if the offence is of commercial quantity
59. Possession of which of the following triggers the presumption under Section 54(a)?
a. Manufacturing apparatus
b. Residue of substances
c. Narcotic drug, psychotropic substance or controlled substance
d. Opium poppy
60. Under Section 54(b), the presumption applies to:
a. Any coca, cannabis or opium poppy plant cultivated by the accused on his land
b. Any plant growing in the forest
c. Any purchased plant
d. Any seized seeds
61. Section 54(c) applies the presumption to:
a. Any utensils in the kitchen
b. Common agricultural tools
c. Apparatus specially designed or group of utensils specially adopted for manufacturing narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances or controlled substances
d. Laboratory furniture
62. Section 54(d) covers materials which:
a. Are in raw natural form only
b. Are intended for export
c. Are in possession of licensed manufacturers
d. Have undergone any process towards manufacture, or residues of such manufacture
63. Under Section 55, an officer-in-charge of a police station is required to take charge of:
a. Only narcotic drugs in commercial quantity
b. Only articles delivered directly by a Magistrate
c. All articles seized under the NDPS Act within the local area of that police station
d. Only psychotropic substances
64. The seized articles under Section 55 are to be kept:
a. Permanently in police custody
b. Pending the orders of the Magistrate
c. Only until samples are taken
d. Pending trial before the Special Court
65. Section 55 allows which officer to affix seal or take samples from the seized articles?
a. Any officer accompanying the articles or deputed for the purpose
b. Only the Magistrate
c. Only the officer-in-charge of the police station
d. Any Gazetted Officer
66. What is the procedure for samples taken under Section 55?
a. Only photographs of samples are required
b. Samples may be left unsealed for court inspection
c. All samples must be sealed with the seal of the officer-in-charge of the police station
d. No sealing required
67. Under Section 56, which officers are legally bound to assist each other?
a. Only officers of the police
b. Officers of the several departments mentioned in Section 42
c. Any Central or State Government officers
d. Only officers of the Narcotics Control Bureau
68. Section 56 imposes the obligation to assist each other upon:
a. Only after seizure of narcotics
b. Only on voluntary basis
c. Only if authorised by a Magistrate
d. Receiving notice or request
69. The assistance required under Section 56 pertains to:
a. Conducting internal departmental audits
b. Drafting rules for the Act
c. Carrying out provisions of the NDPS Act
d. Advising on international cooperation only
70. Under Section 57, when must an officer report an arrest or seizure?
a. Within 24 hours of arrest or seizure
b. Only after forwarding the accused to a Magistrate
c. Within 48 hours of arrest or seizure
d. Within 7 days of arrest or seizure
71. To whom must the report of arrest or seizure be submitted under Section 57?
a. The local Magistrate
b. Immediate official superior of the officer making the arrest or seizure
c. Director General, NCB
d. Officer-in-charge of the nearest police station
72. The report required under Section 57 must contain:
a. Only the identity of the accused
b. Only the quantity of drugs seized
c. Only the date and time of arrest
d. All particulars of the arrest or seizure
73. Under Section 57A, which officer is required to report seizure of property?
a. Only the Magistrate
b. Any officer notified under Section 53
c. Any Gazetted Officer
d. Any officer-in-charge of a police station
74. Section 57A applies when:
a. The seized property is movable only
b. The arrested person possesses only narcotic drugs
c. The provisions of Chapter VA apply to the person involved in the arrest or seizure
d. The seizure occurs outside India
75. The report under Section 57A must pertain to:
a. Only vehicles used for trafficking
b. Personal documents of the arrested person
c. Illegally acquired properties of the arrested person
d. Only the narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances
76. The timeline for submitting the report under Section 57A is:
a. Within 48 hours
b. Within 60 days
c. Within 90 days
d. Within 30 days
77. To whom must the officer submit the report under Section 57A?
a. Immediate official superior
b. Director General, NCB
c. Competent authority having jurisdiction
d. Magistrate who authorised the arrest
78. Section 57A ensures accountability in:
a. Reporting only narcotic seizures
b. Forwarding samples for chemical analysis
c. Reporting illegally acquired properties of persons arrested under NDPS Act
d. Assisting officers under Section 56
79. Under Section 58(1), which category of persons can be punished for vexatious acts?
a. Any person empowered under Sections 42, 43, or 44
b. Only the Magistrate
c. Only Gazetted Officers
d. Any citizen
80. Section 58(1)(a) prescribes punishment for:
a. Failing to report seizure within 48 hours
b. Misuse of laboratory equipment
c. Entering or searching a place without reasonable ground of suspicion
d. Seizing drugs in commercial quantity
81. Section 58(1)(b) deals with:
a. Delayed reporting of seizure
b. Improper chemical analysis of seized drugs
c. Unauthorized disposal of seized narcotics
d. Vexatious and unnecessary seizure of property under the pretext of NDPS provisions
82. Section 58(1)(c) refers to:
a. Malicious interference with investigations
b. False reporting to the Magistrate
c. Seizure of illegal property
d. Vexatious and unnecessary detention, search, or arrest of any person
83. The punishment under Section 58(1) can extend to:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment for life
c. Imprisonment up to 6 months, fine up to 1,000 rupees, or both
d. Imprisonment for 1 year only
84. Section 58(2) deals with:
a. Vexatious seizure of property
b. Wilfully and maliciously giving false information causing arrest or search under the Act
c. Delayed disposal of seized narcotics
d. False reporting by an officer
85. The punishment under Section 58(2) can extend to:
a. Only fine
b. Imprisonment up to 2 years, fine, or both
c. Imprisonment up to 6 months only
d. Imprisonment up to 1 year only
86. Under Section 59(1), an officer who ceases, refuses, or withdraws from performing duties imposed under the Act without lawful excuse is:
a. Non-punishable if no harm occurs
b. Subject to departmental warning only
c. Punishable with imprisonment up to 1 year, fine, or both
d. Punishable with imprisonment up to 6 months only
87. Which of the following excuses makes the officer’s inaction under Section 59(1) lawful?
a. Being busy with personal work
b. Ignorance of the law
c. Absence due to vacation
d. Express written permission of official superior
88. Section 59(2) applies to officers or persons given custody of:
a. Only narcotic traffickers
b. Only persons under preventive detention
c. Any accused under NDPS Act only
d. Addicts or any person charged with an offence under the Act
89. Section 59(2) punishes an officer or custodian who:
a. Fails to report seizure
b. Seizes property beyond authority
c. Wilfully aids in or connives at the contravention of any provision of the Act or rules/orders thereunder
d. Fails to forward accused to Magistrate within 24 hours
90. Punishment under Section 59(2) is:
a. Simple imprisonment up to 2 years only
b. Only fine up to 50,000 rupees
c. Rigorous imprisonment of 6 months to 1 year
d. Rigorous imprisonment not less than 10 years but may extend to 20 years, and fine between 1 lakh to 2 lakh rupees
91. According to the Explanation in Section 59(2), the term “officer” includes:
a. Only police officers
b. Only officers of Narcotics Control Bureau
c. Any person employed in a hospital or institution maintained/recognised under Section 64A for de-addiction treatment
d. Only Gazetted officers
92. Under Section 59(3), cognizance of offences under subsections (1) or (2) requires:
a. Only permission from local police
b. Complaint in writing with previous sanction of Central or State Government
c. Approval by the Director General, NCB
d. Automatic court initiation
93. Section 59(2) imposes a minimum punishment of:
a. No minimum specified
b. 6 months imprisonment
c. 1 year imprisonment
d. 10 years rigorous imprisonment and 1 lakh rupees fine
94. Under Section 60(1), which items are liable to confiscation whenever an offence punishable under the NDPS Act is committed?
a. Only animals used for transport
b. Only narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
c. Narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances, controlled substances, opium poppy, coca plant, cannabis plant, and related materials/apparatus
d. Only commercial quantity drugs
95. Section 60(2) extends confiscation to:
a. Only utensils used in manufacture
b. Lawfully produced/imported/exported drugs found along with items liable under subsection (1), including packages and coverings
c. Only seeds of cannabis and coca plants
d. Any illegally possessed drugs only
96. Under Section 60(3), animals or conveyances used to carry liable drugs are:
a. Always exempt from confiscation
b. Confiscated only if commercial quantity is involved
c. Automatically confiscated without defence
d. Liable unless the owner proves lack of knowledge and due precautions
97. Which of the following best captures the principle of Section 60?
a. Confiscation extends to all related instruments, receptacles, and transport connected with the offence
b. Only drugs are confiscated
c. Only the offender is punished
d. Confiscation is discretionary
98. Section 60(3) provides a defence if the owner:
a. Registers the conveyance
b. Gives oral assurance
c. Was unaware and took all reasonable precautions
d. Reports after seizure
99. Under Section 61, which items are liable to confiscation?
a. Goods used to conceal narcotic/psychotropic/controlled substances
b. Only conveyances
c. Only drugs themselves
d. Only commercial quantity drugs
100. The term “goods” under Section 61:
a. Includes conveyances
b. Excludes conveyances used for transport
c. Refers only to utensils
d. Includes animals
101. Section 61 applies when goods are used for:
a. Legal storage
b. Only production
c. Concealment of illicit substances
d. Transport of medicines
102. Under Section 62, what is liable to confiscation?
a. Only drugs sold
b. Sale proceeds of drugs sold knowingly or with reason to believe they are illicit
c. Only vehicles used
d. Only seller
103. Section 62 applies when the seller:
a. Is unaware
b. Has knowledge or reason to believe the substance is illicit
c. Uses drugs personally
d. Transports legally
104. Confiscation extends to:
a. Only drugs
b. Only utensils
c. Sale proceeds from illicit transactions
d. Only plants
105. Section 62 emphasizes:
a. Economic confiscation of illegal gains
b. Only drug seizure
c. Quantity-based confiscation
d. No financial impact
106. Under Section 63(1), when does the court decide whether an article is liable to confiscation?
a. Only upon conviction of the accused
b. At any stage after appeal
c. Only when the accused is acquitted
d. During trial irrespective of conviction, acquittal or discharge
107. Section 63(1) empowers the court to:
a. Decide liability under Sections 60–62 and order confiscation accordingly
b. Confiscate only sale proceeds
c. Confiscate only narcotic drugs
d. Confiscate without trial
108. Under Section 63(2), if the offender is unknown or absconding, the court may:
a. Return articles to police
b. Destroy all articles
c. Conduct inquiry and decide confiscation
d. Postpone proceedings indefinitely
109. As per the proviso to Section 63(2), confiscation cannot be ordered:
a. After conviction
b. Before one month from seizure
c. Without police report
d. Without NCB approval
110. Before ordering confiscation, the court must:
a. Hear only prosecution
b. Act without notice
c. Hear claimants and consider evidence
d. Confiscate immediately
111. If property (not drugs/plants) may decay or sale benefits owner, the court may:
a. Retain indefinitely
b. Destroy it
c. Return it
d. Order sale and apply law to proceeds
112. Which items are excluded from such sale provision?
a. Vehicles
b. Packaging
c. Narcotic drugs and plants like opium poppy, coca, cannabis
d. Utensils
113. Section 63 ensures:
a. Automatic confiscation
b. Confiscation only after conviction
c. Police discretion
d. Fair hearing and judicial decision even if offender unknown
114. One-month waiting period ensures:
a. Chemical testing
b. Claimants get opportunity to be heard
c. Delay in proceedings
d. Police verification
115. Section 63 reflects:
a. Judicial oversight + claimant hearing + disposal principles
b. Police-led confiscation
c. Mandatory destruction
d. Quantity-based confiscation
116. Who can grant immunity under Section 64(1)?
a. Magistrate only
b. Police officer
c. Central or State Government
d. Director General only
117. Purpose of immunity under Section 64(1):
a. Reduce punishment
b. Obtain full disclosure and evidence
c. Release accused
d. Confiscate property
118. Immunity may extend to offences under:
a. Only NDPS Act
b. NDPS + IPC + other laws
c. Only NDPS rules
d. Only trafficking offences
119. Essential condition for immunity:
a. Appearance before court
b. Payment of fine
c. Surrender of drugs
d. Full and true disclosure
120. Effect of accepting immunity:
a. Immunity from covered offences
b. Immunity from all offences
c. Automatic acquittal
d. Civil immunity only
121. Immunity may be withdrawn if:
a. Full disclosure made
b. False evidence or concealment occurs
c. Drugs surrendered
d. Partial cooperation
122. After withdrawal of immunity:
a. Only minor trial
b. No trial
c. Civil proceedings only
d. Trial for same or related offences
123. Reasons for granting immunity must be:
a. Oral
b. Confidential
c. Written
d. Judicially declared
124. Who is eligible under Section 64A?
a. Traffickers
b. Any accused
c. Addicts in small quantity/Section 27 cases
d. Commercial offenders
125. Condition for immunity:
a. Fine payment
b. Voluntary de-addiction treatment
c. Pleading guilty
d. Surrender drugs
126. Section 64A applies to:
a. All offences
b. Only trafficking
c. Civil liability
d. Section 27 + small quantity offences
127. Treatment must be taken from:
a. Private clinic
b. Any NGO
c. Police centres
d. Govt-recognized hospital/institution
128. Immunity depends on:
a. Admission only
b. Partial treatment
c. Completion of treatment
d. Police reporting
129. Immunity may be withdrawn if:
a. Treatment incomplete
b. Voluntary participation
c. Cooperation given
d. Small quantity involved
130. Section 66 applies to documents that are:
a. Produced/furnished under this Act or any law, or seized from custody/control of any person
b. Only documents written by the accused
c. Only documents executed abroad
d. Only oral evidence converted into writing
131. Section 66 also covers documents:
a. Prepared only within India
b. Written in official language only
c. Received from outside India if duly authenticated as prescribed
d. Certified only by Indian courts
132. When a document is tendered, the court shall presume:
a. Its contents are conclusive proof
b. Its handwriting/signature belongs to the purported person
c. It requires further authentication always
d. It is inadmissible unless notarised
133. In case of executed/attested documents, the court presumes:
a. Only signature validity
b. Execution but not attestation
c. Invalidity unless proved
d. Proper execution/attestation by the purported person
134. A document may be admitted even if:
a. It is unsigned
b. It is not duly stamped but otherwise admissible
c. It is photocopied only
d. It is unsigned by witnesses
135. Section 66 allows the court to:
a. Ignore document contents
b. Admit document without scrutiny
c. Examine persons acquainted with facts to prove truth
d. Use document only for corroboration
136. Presumption under Section 66 is:
a. Absolute
b. Limited to foreign documents
c. Limited to signatures
d. Rebuttable
137. Section 66 applies:
a. Only in joint trials
b. Only in individual trials
c. Only for minor offences
d. Whether accused is tried individually or jointly
138. Section 66 facilitates prosecution by:
a. Eliminating need for evidence
b. Presuming authenticity unless rebutted
c. Making documents conclusive proof
d. Excluding foreign documents
139. Officers empowered under Section 67 are:
a. Any police officer
b. Officers under Section 42 authorised by Central/State Government
c. Only Magistrates
d. Only NCB Director General
140. Purpose under Section 67(a):
a. Immediate confiscation
b. Determine contravention of the Act
c. Record confession
d. Arrest accused
141. Section 67(b) allows officer to:
a. Seize drugs only
b. Demand written confession
c. Require production of relevant documents/things
d. Arrest witnesses
142. Section 67(c) empowers officer to:
a. Arrest suspect
b. Examine persons acquainted with facts
c. Confiscate property
d. Issue warrants
143. Powers under Section 67 are exercisable:
a. After conviction
b. During enquiry relating to contraventions
c. Only during trial
d. Only after court permission
144. Section 68 provides protection to officers regarding:
a. Disclosure of the source of information relating to commission of an offence
b. Confiscation of narcotic substances
c. Arrest without warrant
d. Disposal of seized property
145. Under Section 68, an officer:
a. Must disclose source when directed by court
b. Shall not be compelled to disclose the source of information
c. Must disclose source to accused
d. Must record source in writing
146. Section 68 applies to:
a. Only Magistrates
b. Only Central Government officers
c. Officers acting under any provision of the Act or rules/orders
d. Private individuals assisting police
147. Section 68A forms part of which Chapter of the NDPS Act?
a. Chapter IV
b. Chapter VA
c. Chapter VI
d. Chapter VII
148. As per Section 68A(1), Chapter VA applies to:
a. All persons under the NDPS Act
b. Only repeat offenders
c. Only persons specified in sub-section (2)
d. Only detained persons
149. Section 68A(2)(a) applies to persons convicted with imprisonment of:
a. Five years or more
b. Seven years or more
c. Ten years or more
d. Any term
150. Section 68A(2)(b) covers persons:
a. Accused abroad
b. Convicted outside India for similar offences
c. Under investigation abroad
d. Extradited only
151. Which Act is referred in Section 68A(2)(c)?
a. COFEPOSA
b. NSA
c. PITNDPS Act, 1988
d. UAPA
152. Section 68A(2)(c) will not apply if detention:
a. Is passed by State
b. Is confirmed by authority
c. Is revoked/set aside by Advisory Board or court
d. Is preventive
153. Clause (cc) includes:
a. Only convicted persons
b. Only detainees
c. Persons arrested or against whom warrant issued for offences ≥10 years
d. Only foreign offenders
154. Clause (cc) also extends to:
a. IPC offences only
b. NDPS offences only
c. Customs offences only
d. Corresponding foreign laws
155. Section 68A(2)(d) includes:
a. Only spouse
b. Only parents
c. Every relative of specified persons
d. Only dependents