Download Arbitration Act MCQs PDF
Download Arbitration Act One Liner Notes PDF
Download Arbitration Act All MCQs + One Liner Notes
Also Explore:
There are 8 Sets of MCQs available for Arbitration And Conciliation Act, 1996, you are advised to explore all the sets :
1. The place of meetings with the conciliator shall be determined by:
a. The court
b. The conciliator
c. The Central Government
d. The Arbitration Council
2. The conciliator determines the place of meetings when:
a. The court directs
b. The parties have not agreed on the place
c. Arbitration tribunal orders
d. Government notifies
3. Before determining the place of meeting, the conciliator must:
a. Obtain court approval
b. Consult the parties
c. Inform the Arbitration Council
d. Seek government permission
4. While determining the place of meeting, the conciliator shall consider:
a. Court jurisdiction
b. Circumstances of the conciliation proceedings
c. Government policy
d. Arbitration rules
5. If the parties agree upon the place of meetings with the conciliator:
a. The conciliator must ignore it
b. The conciliator must follow that agreement
c. The court must approve it
d. The government must approve it
6. Section 70 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Settlement agreement
b. Disclosure of information by conciliator
c. Termination of conciliation
d. Appointment of conciliators
7. Under Section 70, when the conciliator receives factual information concerning the dispute from a party, he shall:
a. Keep it permanently confidential
b. Disclose the substance of that information to the other party
c. Submit it to the court
d. Forward it to the Arbitration Council
8. The purpose of disclosure of information by the conciliator is to ensure that:
a. Arbitration proceeds quickly
b. The other party has an opportunity to present explanation
c. The dispute is immediately settled
d. Evidence is recorded formally
9. The conciliator must disclose:
a. The entire written statement
b. The substance of the factual information
c. Only documentary evidence
d. Only oral submissions
10. Disclosure of factual information ensures:
a. Judicial review
b. Fair opportunity to the other party
c. Court supervision
d. Enforcement of settlement
11. Under the proviso to Section 70, the conciliator shall not disclose information if:
a. It is irrelevant
b. It is given subject to a specific condition of confidentiality
c. It is given orally
d. It concerns commercial matters
12. When a party provides information with a confidentiality condition:
a. The conciliator must disclose it to the court
b. The conciliator must disclose it to the other party
c. The conciliator shall not disclose it to the other party
d. The conciliator must record it in writing
13. The confidentiality restriction under Section 70 applies when:
a. The conciliator thinks it appropriate
b. The court directs it
c. The party imposes a specific condition of confidentiality
d. The dispute is commercial
14. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 70?
a. Conciliator must always disclose all information received
b. Conciliator discloses factual information unless confidentiality condition exists
c. Conciliator must keep all information confidential
d. Conciliator must send information to the court
15. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Section 70?
a. Conciliator may receive factual information from parties
b. Substance of information must be disclosed to the other party
c. Confidential information must always be disclosed
d. Confidential information may be withheld if the party imposes such condition
16. Section 71 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Role of conciliator
b. Co-operation of parties with conciliator
c. Settlement agreement
d. Termination of conciliation
17. Under Section 71, the parties shall co-operate with the conciliator:
a. Formally
b. In good faith
c. Only when ordered by court
d. Only during meetings
18. The parties are required to endeavour to comply with requests made by:
a. The court
b. The conciliator
c. The Central Government
d. Arbitration Council
19. The requests of the conciliator may include submitting:
a. Written materials
b. Evidence
c. Attendance at meetings
d. All of the above
20. Which of the following is specifically mentioned in Section 71 as a form of cooperation?
a. Filing appeal
b. Providing evidence
c. Submitting pleadings to court
d. Registration of agreement
21. Section 72 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Settlement proposals by conciliator
b. Suggestions by parties for settlement
c. Termination of conciliation
d. Appointment of conciliators
22. Under Section 72, suggestions for settlement of dispute may be submitted by:
a. Only the conciliator
b. Only the claimant
c. Each party
d. Only the court
23. A party may submit suggestions for settlement:
a. Only when directed by court
b. On his own initiative
c. At the invitation of the conciliator
d. Both B and C
24. The suggestions for settlement are submitted to:
a. The court
b. The conciliator
c. The Central Government
d. Arbitration Council
25. Section 73 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Termination of conciliation
b. Settlement agreement
c. Appointment of conciliators
d. Evidence in conciliation
26. When the conciliator believes there exist elements of a settlement acceptable to parties, he shall:
a. Pass an award
b. Formulate terms of possible settlement
c. Refer dispute to arbitration
d. Terminate proceedings
27. The conciliator shall submit the formulated settlement terms to:
a. The court
b. The parties
c. The Central Government
d. Arbitration Council
28. After receiving observations of the parties, the conciliator may:
a. Pass binding decision
b. Reformulate the terms of settlement
c. Dismiss the proceedings
d. Refer dispute to court
29. If the parties reach agreement on settlement, they shall:
a. Inform the court
b. Draw up and sign a written settlement agreement
c. Issue arbitral award
d. File execution petition
30. At the request of the parties, the conciliator may:
a. Draft the settlement agreement
b. Assist in drafting the settlement agreement
c. Both A and B
d. Enforce the settlement agreement
31. When the parties sign the settlement agreement, it becomes:
a. Advisory only
b. Final and binding on the parties
c. Subject to court approval
d. Temporary arrangement
32. The settlement agreement is binding on:
a. Parties only
b. Parties and persons claiming under them
c. Courts only
d. Arbitrators only
33. The conciliator shall:
a. Approve the agreement
b. Authenticate the settlement agreement
c. Enforce the agreement
d. Modify the agreement
34. After authentication, the conciliator shall:
a. File it in court
b. Furnish a copy to each party
c. Send it to the Central Government
d. Send it to the Arbitration Council
35. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 73?
a. Settlement agreement must always be drafted by court
b. Settlement agreement must be written and signed by parties
c. Settlement agreement is not binding
d. Conciliator issues a decree
36. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Section 73?
a. Conciliator may propose settlement terms
b. Settlement agreement must be signed by parties
c. Conciliator must enforce the settlement
d. Agreement becomes final and binding once signed
37. Section 74 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Settlement agreement
b. Status and effect of settlement agreement
c. Termination of conciliation
d. Role of conciliator
38. Under Section 74, a settlement agreement shall have the same status and effect as:
a. Court decree
b. Arbitral award on agreed terms
c. Mediation order
d. Administrative decision
39. The arbitral award referred to in Section 74 is rendered under:
a. Section 28
b. Section 30
c. Section 34
d. Section 36
40. The arbitral award referred to in Section 74 must relate to:
a. Procedural issues
b. Substance of the dispute
c. Court jurisdiction
d. Appointment of arbitrators
41. The settlement agreement under Section 74 has the same effect as:
a. Arbitration agreement
b. Arbitral award on agreed terms
c. Court order
d. Conciliation request
42. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 74?
a. Settlement agreement has no legal effect
b. Settlement agreement has the same status as arbitral award on agreed terms
c. Settlement agreement must be approved by court
d. Settlement agreement is only advisory
43. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Section 74?
a. Settlement agreement has legal effect
b. It is equivalent to arbitral award on agreed terms
c. It is rendered under Section 30
d. It has no binding effect
44. Section 75 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Termination of conciliation
b. Confidentiality in conciliation proceedings
c. Settlement agreement
d. Appointment of conciliators
45. Section 75 begins with a non-obstante clause overriding:
a. Arbitration rules
b. Any other law for the time being in force
c. Code of Civil Procedure only
d. Evidence Act only
46. Under Section 75, confidentiality must be maintained by:
a. Only the conciliator
b. Only the parties
c. Both the conciliator and the parties
d. Only the court
47. Confidentiality under Section 75 applies to:
a. Only settlement terms
b. All matters relating to conciliation proceedings
c. Only written submissions
d. Only oral statements
48. Confidentiality extends to:
a. Arbitration agreement
b. Settlement agreement
c. Evidence Act provisions
d. Court proceedings
49. Disclosure of the settlement agreement is permitted when:
a. Parties disagree
b. Court orders disclosure
c. It is necessary for implementation or enforcement
d. Arbitration begins
50. Section 76 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Confidentiality
b. Termination of conciliation proceedings
c. Appointment of conciliators
d. Settlement agreement
51. Conciliation proceedings terminate when:
a. Settlement agreement is signed by parties
b. Conciliator declares further efforts unjustified
c. Parties declare termination
d. All of the above
52. Under Section 76(a), conciliation proceedings terminate:
a. When arbitration begins
b. On signing of the settlement agreement by parties
c. When conciliator proposes settlement
d. When court intervenes
53. The date of termination under Section 76(a) is:
a. Date of dispute
b. Date of signing settlement agreement
c. Date of court approval
d. Date of arbitration notice
54. Under Section 76(b), proceedings terminate when:
a. Parties refuse settlement
b. Conciliator issues written declaration after consulting parties
c. Court orders termination
d. Arbitration begins
55. The conciliator’s declaration under Section 76(b) must state that:
a. Settlement has failed
b. Further efforts at conciliation are no longer justified
c. Parties have withdrawn
d. Arbitration must begin
56. Under Section 76(c), conciliation proceedings terminate when:
a. Parties jointly issue written declaration addressed to conciliator
b. Court directs termination
c. Arbitrator orders termination
d. Government directs termination
57. Under Section 76(d), proceedings terminate when:
a. Both parties withdraw jointly
b. One party declares termination to the other party and conciliator
c. Court cancels proceedings
d. Arbitration tribunal orders termination
58. The termination under Section 76(d) takes effect on:
a. Date of dispute
b. Date of declaration
c. Date of arbitration
d. Date of settlement
59. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 76?
a. Only conciliator may terminate proceedings
b. Only court may terminate proceedings
c. Conciliation may terminate by settlement or written declaration
d. Proceedings never terminate
60. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Section 76?
a. Proceedings terminate when settlement is signed
b. Conciliator may terminate proceedings by written declaration
c. Parties may jointly terminate proceedings
d. Only courts may terminate conciliation
61. Section 77 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Confidentiality
b. Termination of conciliation
c. Resort to arbitral or judicial proceedings
d. Settlement agreement
62. During conciliation proceedings, the parties shall:
a. Initiate arbitration proceedings
b. Initiate judicial proceedings
c. Not initiate arbitral or judicial proceedings regarding the dispute
d. File appeals
63. The restriction under Section 77 applies to disputes that are:
a. Criminal disputes
b. Subject-matter of conciliation proceedings
c. Administrative disputes
d. Constitutional disputes
64. A party may initiate arbitral or judicial proceedings during conciliation if:
a. Court permits
b. Conciliator agrees
c. It is necessary for preserving his rights
d. Arbitration agreement requires
65. The exception allowing proceedings during conciliation exists when:
a. Settlement is near
b. Rights of the party must be preserved
c. Arbitration fees are unpaid
d. Court directs arbitration
66. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 77?
a. Parties may freely start arbitration during conciliation
b. Parties are restricted from initiating arbitral or judicial proceedings
c. Courts must intervene during conciliation
d. Conciliation automatically converts to arbitration
67. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Section 77?
a. Parties must avoid parallel proceedings during conciliation
b. Exception exists to preserve rights
c. Arbitration can always begin during conciliation
d. Restriction applies to disputes under conciliation
68. Section 78 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Settlement agreement
b. Costs of conciliation proceedings
c. Termination of conciliation
d. Confidentiality
69. Under Section 78(1), the conciliator shall fix the costs:
a. At the commencement of conciliation
b. During conciliation proceedings
c. Upon termination of conciliation proceedings
d. After arbitration begins
70. After fixing the costs of conciliation, the conciliator shall:
a. Inform the court
b. Inform the Central Government
c. Give written notice to the parties
d. Inform the Arbitration Council
71. Under Section 78(2), “costs” include:
a. Fee and expenses of the conciliator
b. Expenses of witnesses requested by the conciliator with consent of parties
c. Expert advice requested by the conciliator with consent of parties
d. All of the above
72. Witness expenses included in costs are those:
a. Called by the court
b. Requested by the conciliator with consent of the parties
c. Called by any party
d. Appointed by the government
73. Costs include expert advice requested by:
a. Any party independently
b. The conciliator with consent of the parties
c. The court
d. Arbitration tribunal
74. Costs include assistance provided pursuant to:
a. Section 64(2)(b) and Section 68
b. Section 30 and Section 34
c. Section 45 and Section 48
d. Section 11 and Section 12
75. Section 78 also includes expenses incurred in connection with:
a. Court proceedings
b. Arbitration tribunal proceedings
c. Conciliation proceedings and settlement agreement
d. Criminal proceedings
76. Unless otherwise provided in the settlement agreement, the costs of conciliation shall be borne:
a. By the claimant
b. By the respondent
c. Equally by the parties
d. By the government
77. The settlement agreement may provide for:
a. Equal sharing of costs only
b. Different apportionment of costs
c. Court-approved costs only
d. Government-determined costs
78. Expenses incurred individually by a party during conciliation shall be borne by:
a. The conciliator
b. The other party
c. That party itself
d. The court
79. Section 79 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Settlement agreement
b. Deposits in conciliation proceedings
c. Confidentiality
d. Termination of conciliation
80. Under Section 79(1), the conciliator may direct the parties to deposit an advance for:
a. Arbitration expenses
b. Court costs
c. Costs referred to in Section 78(2)
d. Government fees
81. The advance deposit directed by the conciliator shall be paid by:
a. Only the claimant
b. Only the respondent
c. Each party in equal amount
d. The government
82. The advance deposit is meant to cover costs expected to be incurred in:
a. Court proceedings
b. Conciliation proceedings
c. Criminal proceedings
d. Administrative proceedings
83. During conciliation proceedings, the conciliator may direct:
a. Final deposits only
b. Supplementary deposits
c. Government deposits
d. Court deposits
84. Supplementary deposits under Section 79(2) must be paid:
a. By one party
b. By both parties in equal amount
c. By the conciliator
d. By the court
85. If required deposits are not paid within thirty days, the conciliator may:
a. Refer dispute to arbitration
b. Suspend the proceedings
c. Terminate the proceedings
d. Both B and C
86. The declaration terminating proceedings under Section 79(3) must be:
a. Oral
b. Written
c. Approved by court
d. Approved by parties
87. The termination of proceedings under Section 79(3) becomes effective on:
a. Date of dispute
b. Date of written declaration
c. Date of settlement
d. Date of court order
88. Upon termination of conciliation proceedings, the conciliator shall:
a. Retain deposits
b. Render accounting of deposits received
c. Transfer deposits to court
d. Give deposits to one party
89. Any unexpended balance of deposits shall be:
a. Kept by the conciliator
b. Returned to the parties
c. Sent to the government
d. Deposited in court
90. Section 80 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Evidence in arbitration
b. Role of conciliator in other proceedings
c. Termination of conciliation
d. Confidentiality
91. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the conciliator shall not act as:
a. Arbitrator
b. Representative or counsel of a party
c. Both A and B
d. Witness
92. The restriction on the conciliator acting as arbitrator applies in respect of:
a. Any dispute
b. The dispute that is the subject of conciliation proceedings
c. Only domestic disputes
d. Only commercial disputes
93. The conciliator cannot act as a representative or counsel of a party in:
a. Conciliation proceedings
b. Arbitral or judicial proceedings
c. Criminal proceedings
d. Administrative proceedings
94. Under Section 80(b), the conciliator shall not be presented as:
a. Arbitrator
b. Expert witness
c. Witness in arbitral or judicial proceedings
d. Court commissioner
95. The restrictions under Section 80 apply:
a. Always
b. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties
c. Only when court directs
d. Only when arbitration begins
96. Section 81 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Settlement agreement
b. Admissibility of evidence in other proceedings
c. Appointment of conciliators
d. Confidentiality
97. Under Section 81, parties shall not rely on or introduce certain matters as evidence in:
a. Conciliation proceedings
b. Arbitral or judicial proceedings
c. Criminal proceedings
d. Administrative proceedings
98. The restriction under Section 81 applies whether or not the proceedings relate to:
a. Same dispute
b. Any dispute
c. Criminal matters
d. Administrative matters
99. Which of the following cannot be introduced as evidence under Section 81?
a. Views expressed by the other party regarding possible settlement
b. Admissions made during conciliation proceedings
c. Proposals made by the conciliator
d. All of the above
100. Suggestions made by the other party regarding possible settlement:
a. Can be used as evidence
b. Cannot be used as evidence in arbitral or judicial proceedings
c. Must be submitted to court
d. Must be recorded as evidence
101. Admissions made during conciliation proceedings:
a. May be used in arbitration
b. May be used in court
c. Cannot be relied upon as evidence
d. Must be disclosed publicly
102. Proposals made by the conciliator during conciliation:
a. May be used in court
b. May be used in arbitration
c. Cannot be introduced as evidence
d. Must be filed in court
103. The fact that a party indicated willingness to accept a settlement proposal:
a. Can be used as evidence
b. Cannot be used as evidence
c. Must be recorded by court
d. Must be reported to government
104. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 81?
a. Statements made during conciliation may be used as evidence
b. Settlement discussions remain protected from later proceedings
c. Courts must examine settlement proposals
d. Conciliation proposals must be disclosed
105. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Section 81?
a. Admissions during conciliation cannot be used as evidence
b. Settlement proposals cannot be relied upon as evidence
c. Views on settlement can be used in arbitration
d. Willingness to accept settlement cannot be used as evidence
106. Section 82 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Power of Central Government to make rules
b. Power of High Court to make rules
c. Power of arbitrators to frame rules
d. Power of conciliator to make rules
107. Under Section 82, the authority empowered to make rules is:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. Arbitration Council
108. The rules made by the High Court must be:
a. Consistent with the Constitution
b. Consistent with this Act
c. Consistent with CPC only
d. Consistent with Evidence Act
109. The rules made by the High Court relate to:
a. Arbitration agreements
b. Proceedings before the Court under this Act
c. Conciliation proceedings only
d. Government arbitration policy
110. Section 83 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Appointment of arbitrators
b. Removal of difficulties
c. Settlement agreements
d. Court jurisdiction
111. Under Section 83(1), the authority empowered to remove difficulties is:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. Arbitration Council
112. The Central Government may remove difficulties by issuing:
a. Rules
b. Regulations
c. Order published in the Official Gazette
d. Judicial notification
113. The provisions made by the Central Government under Section 83 must be:
a. Inconsistent with the Act
b. Consistent with the provisions of this Act
c. Approved by courts
d. Approved by arbitral tribunal
114. The purpose of orders issued under Section 83 is:
a. Amendment of the Act
b. Removal of difficulties in giving effect to the Act
c. Enforcement of arbitral awards
d. Appointment of arbitrators
115. The Central Government may issue such orders if:
a. Parliament directs
b. Any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of the Act
c. Arbitration fails
d. Court directs
116. The power to issue orders under Section 83 can be exercised:
a. At any time
b. Only within two years from commencement of the Act
c. Within five years from commencement
d. Only when Parliament approves
117. No order under Section 83 shall be made after:
a. One year from commencement
b. Two years from commencement of the Act
c. Three years from commencement
d. Five years from commencement
118. Every order made under Section 83 shall be laid before:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Each House of Parliament
d. Arbitration Council
119. The order made under Section 83 shall be laid before Parliament:
a. Before it is issued
b. As soon as may be after it is made
c. After five years
d. Only if Parliament demands
120. Section 84 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Power of High Court to make rules
b. Power of Central Government to make rules
c. Appointment of arbitrators
d. Settlement agreement
121. Under Section 84(1), the authority empowered to make rules is:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. Arbitration Council
122. The Central Government may make rules by issuing:
a. Order
b. Notification in the Official Gazette
c. Presidential ordinance
d. Judicial notification
123. The purpose of the rules made under Section 84 is:
a. Enforcement of arbitral awards
b. Carrying out the provisions of the Act
c. Appointment of judges
d. Settlement of disputes
124. Every rule made under the Act must be laid before:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Each House of Parliament
d. Arbitration Council
125. The rules shall be laid before Parliament for a total period of:
a. Fifteen days
b. Thirty days
c. Sixty days
d. Ninety days
126. The thirty days period may be comprised in:
a. One session only
b. Two sessions only
c. One session or two or more successive sessions
d. Any number of years
127. If both Houses of Parliament agree to modify a rule:
a. The rule becomes void automatically
b. The rule takes effect only in the modified form
c. The rule continues unchanged
d. The rule becomes invalid entirely
128. If both Houses of Parliament agree that the rule should not be made:
a. The rule continues to operate
b. The rule becomes ineffective
c. The rule must be approved by courts
d. The rule must be reconsidered by government
129. Any modification or annulment of the rule shall:
a. Affect all previous actions taken under it
b. Not affect previous actions taken under the rule
c. Cancel past actions
d. Require fresh approval of Parliament
130. Section 85 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Power to make rules
b. Repeal and savings
c. Enforcement of awards
d. Appointment of arbitrators
131. Under Section 85(1), which of the following Acts are repealed?
a. Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
b. Arbitration Act, 1940
c. Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961
d. All of the above
132. The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act repealed by Section 85 is of the year:
a. 1935
b. 1937
c. 1940
d. 1961
133. The Arbitration Act repealed by Section 85 is of the year:
a. 1937
b. 1940
c. 1956
d. 1961
134. The Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act repealed by Section 85 is of the year:
a. 1956
b. 1960
c. 1961
d. 1965
135. Despite repeal, the provisions of the repealed enactments shall apply to arbitral proceedings that:
a. Commenced after this Act came into force
b. Commenced before this Act came into force
c. Commenced after 2015 amendment
d. Were decided by court
136. The continued application of repealed enactments to earlier proceedings applies:
a. In all cases
b. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties
c. Only when court orders
d. Only when government directs
137. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 applies to arbitral proceedings which commenced:
a. Before commencement of the Act
b. On or after commencement of the Act
c. Only after 2015 amendment
d. Only after court approval
138. Rules made under the repealed enactments shall:
a. Automatically lapse
b. Continue if not repugnant to this Act
c. Be cancelled by government
d. Require court approval
139. Notifications issued under repealed enactments shall:
a. Become void
b. Be deemed to have been issued under this Act if not inconsistent
c. Be cancelled by Parliament
d. Be enforced by courts
140. Section 86 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Repeal and saving relating to Ordinance
b. Appointment of arbitrators
c. Enforcement of awards
d. Settlement agreement
141. Under Section 86(1), which Ordinance is repealed?
a. Arbitration Ordinance, 1995
b. Arbitration and Conciliation (Third) Ordinance, 1996
c. Arbitration Amendment Ordinance, 2015
d. Conciliation Ordinance, 1996
142. The Arbitration and Conciliation (Third) Ordinance repealed under Section 86 is:
a. Ordinance No. 20 of 1996
b. Ordinance No. 27 of 1996
c. Ordinance No. 15 of 1996
d. Ordinance No. 5 of 1996
143. Despite repeal of the Ordinance, actions taken under it shall:
a. Become void
b. Be deemed to have been made under the corresponding provisions of this Act
c. Require court approval
d. Require fresh notification
144. The saving clause under Section 86 applies to:
a. Orders
b. Rules
c. Notifications or schemes
d. All of the above
145. Anything done under the repealed Ordinance shall be deemed to have been done under:
a. CPC
b. Corresponding provisions of this Act
c. Evidence Act
d. Arbitration Act, 1940
146. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 86?
a. All actions under the Ordinance become void
b. Actions under the Ordinance continue under corresponding provisions of the Act
c. Courts must revalidate earlier actions
d. Ordinance continues in force
147. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Section 86?
a. The Third Ordinance of 1996 is repealed
b. Actions taken under it are preserved
c. Actions must be reissued under the Act
d. Actions are deemed under corresponding provisions of this Act
148. Section 87 deals with:
a. Repeal of arbitration laws
b. Effect of arbitral and related court proceedings prior to 23rd October 2015
c. Appointment of arbitrators
d. Settlement agreement
149. Section 87 relates to amendments made by:
a. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
b. Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015
c. Arbitration Amendment Act, 2019
d. Arbitration Amendment Act, 2021
150. The Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 commenced on:
a. 1 January 2015
b. 23 October 2015
c. 1 April 2016
d. 15 August 2015
151. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the 2015 amendments shall not apply to:
a. Arbitral proceedings commenced after 23 October 2015
b. Arbitral proceedings commenced before 23 October 2015
c. Arbitration agreements only
d. Court proceedings only
152. Court proceedings arising out of arbitral proceedings commenced before 23 October 2015:
a. Are governed by the amendments
b. Are not governed by the amendments
c. Must be refiled
d. Are automatically terminated
153. The non-application of amendments applies irrespective of whether court proceedings are commenced:
a. Before commencement of amendment only
b. After commencement of amendment only
c. Before or after commencement of amendment
d. Only during arbitration
154. The amendments made by the 2015 Act apply only to arbitral proceedings commenced:
a. Before 23 October 2015
b. On or after 23 October 2015
c. Before 1996
d. Before 2010
155. The amendments apply to court proceedings arising out of arbitral proceedings commenced:
a. On or after 23 October 2015
b. Before 23 October 2015
c. Before 1996
d. Before 2000
156. The rule under Section 87 applies:
a. Absolutely without exception
b. Unless parties otherwise agree
c. Only when court orders
d. Only when government directs
157. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 87?
a. Amendments of 2015 apply to all arbitral proceedings
b. Amendments apply only to proceedings commenced on or after 23 October 2015
c. Amendments apply to all earlier proceedings
d. Amendments apply only to domestic arbitration
158. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Section 87?
a. 2015 amendments apply prospectively
b. Earlier proceedings are generally governed by pre-amendment law
c. Amendments apply to all arbitral proceedings regardless of date
d. Parties may agree otherwise
Download Arbitration Act MCQs PDF