ADMINISTRATIVE LAW
1. Administrative law deals primarily with:
a. Relations between private individuals
b. Powers and functions of administrative authorities
c. Criminal offences
d. Contractual obligations
2. Administrative law is concerned with:
a. Organization and powers of administrative authorities
b. Property disputes
c. Criminal liability
d. Family law
3. Administrative law mainly regulates:
a. Government administration
b. Private contracts
c. Criminal justice
d. Property rights
4. According to Dicey, administrative law refers to:
a. Law governing administration
b. Law governing contracts
c. Law governing criminal offences
d. Law governing property
5. Administrative law developed mainly due to:
a. Rise of criminal law
b. Decline of government
c. Increase in contracts
d. Growth of welfare state
6. The expansion of administrative law is closely related to:
a. Welfare state concept
b. Feudal system
c. Military rule
d. Contract law
7. Administrative law is primarily concerned with:
a. Control of administrative powers
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property transfer
d. Contract enforcement
8. One major objection to administrative law was based on:
a. Property Law
b. Criminal justice
c. Rule of law
d. Contract law
9. The doctrine of Rule of Law was developed by:
a. A.V. Dicey
b. Salmond
c. Austin
d. Bentham
10. Rule of Law means:
a. Supremacy of law over arbitrary power
b. Supremacy of government
c. Supremacy of judges
d. Supremacy of police
11. One element of Dicey’s Rule of Law is:
a. Equality before law
b. Supremacy of contracts
c. Criminal punishment
d. Property ownership
12. Another principle of Rule of Law is:
a. Unlimited administrative power
b. Absence of arbitrary power
c. Criminal authority
d. Contract enforcement
13. According to Dicey, rights of individuals are protected by:
a. Ordinary courts
b. Administrative courts
c. Military courts
d. Police authorities
14. Separation of powers doctrine was given by:
a. Montesquieu
b. Dicey
c. Bentham
d. Austin
15. The doctrine of separation of powers means:
a. Power with judiciary only
b. Power concentrated in one authority
c. Distribution of powers among different organs of government
d. Power with legislature only
16. The three organs of government are:
a. Legislature, Executive, Judiciary
b. Executive, Police, Army
c. Legislature, Police, Army
d. Judiciary, Police, Army
17. The purpose of separation of powers is to:
a. Prevent concentration of power
b. Increase executive power
c. Strengthen contracts
d. Strengthen criminal law
18. In India, separation of powers is:
a. Strictly followed
b. Not rigidly followed
c. Completely absent
d. Only in criminal law
19. The doctrine of rule of law is incorporated in the Indian Constitution through:
a. Equality before law
b. Freedom of contract
c. Criminal punishment
d. Property ownership
20. Equality before law is guaranteed under:
a. Article 14 of the Constitution
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 32
21. The landmark case explaining Rule of Law in India is:
a. Rylands v Fletcher
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala
d. Ashby v White
22. In Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that:
a. Basic structure of Constitution cannot be amended
b. Parliament has unlimited power
c. Judiciary has no power
d. Constitution can be abolished
23. Another important case on Rule of Law is:
a. Indira Nehru Gandhi v Raj Narain
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Bolam v Friern Hospital
d. Ashby v White
24. In Indira Nehru Gandhi case, the court emphasized:
a. Rule of Law as part of basic structure
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property rights
d. Contract law
25. The concept of administrative law developed first in:
a. England
b. India
c. France
d. USA
26. In France, administrative law is applied through:
a. Administrative courts
b. Criminal courts
c. Civil courts
d. Military courts
27. The French administrative court system is known as:
a. Conseil d'Etat
b. Supreme Court
c. High Court
d. Privy Council
28. The growth of administrative law is mainly due to:
a. Expansion of government functions
b. Decline of government
c. Contract disputes
d. Criminal offences
29. Administrative law controls:
a. Abuse of administrative power
b. Criminal trials
c. Property transfers
d. Private contracts
30. Delegated legislation means:
a. Law made by courts
b. Law made by administrative authorities under powers given by legislature
c. Law made by private persons
d. Criminal law
31. Delegated legislation is also known as:
a. Subordinate legislation
b. Constitutional law
c. Criminal law
d. Property law
32. Delegated legislation is made by:
a. Legislature
b. Executive authorities
c. Judiciary
d. Private parties
33. The main reason for delegated legislation is:
a. Lack of time for legislature
b. Technical complexity of modern governance
c. Need for flexibility
d. All of the above
34. Delegated legislation helps in:
a. Detailed rule-making
b. Administrative convenience
c. Quick response to emergencies
d. All of the above
35. Types of delegated legislation include:
a. Conditional legislation
b. Subordinate legislation
c. Both A and B
d. None
36. The doctrine “Delegatus Non Potest Delegare” means:
a. A delegate cannot further delegate
b. Legislature cannot legislate
c. Courts cannot interpret law
d. Executive cannot act
37. Essential legislative functions include:
a. Determination of legislative policy
b. Formulation of binding rule of conduct
c. Both A and B
d. Administrative control
38. Essential legislative functions cannot be delegated because:
a. They belong to legislature
b. They belong to judiciary
c. They belong to executive
d. They belong to police
39. The leading case on delegated legislation in India is:
a. In re Delhi Laws Act Case
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Ashby v White
40. In re Delhi Laws Act case was decided in:
a. 1951
b. 1932
c. 1973
d. 1967
41. The Supreme Court in Delhi Laws case held:
a. Essential legislative function cannot be delegated
b. Legislature can delegate everything
c. Executive can legislate freely
d. Judiciary can legislate
42. The power of supplying details means:
a. Filling in details to implement policy
b. Creating new policy
c. Changing constitution
d. Criminal punishment
43. Power of inclusion and exclusion refers to:
a. Adding or removing areas from operation of law
b. Criminal prosecution
c. Contract formation
d. Property rights
44. Power of modification of statute allows:
a. Minor changes to statute
b. Abolition of statute
c. Criminal punishment
d. Constitutional amendment
45. Abdication test means:
a. Legislature controls courts
b. Executive controls legislature
c. Judiciary controls legislature
d. Legislature cannot surrender its legislative power completely
46. If legislature gives unlimited power to executive:
a. It amounts to abdication
b. It is valid
c. It strengthens democracy
d. It is criminal law
47. Delegated legislation may sometimes operate:
a. Retrospectively
b. Prospectively only
c. Criminally
d. Contractually
48. Retrospective operation of delegated legislation is allowed when:
a. Court Orders
b. Executive decides alone
c. Parent statute authorizes it
d. Police allow
49. Power to impose tax by delegated legislation is:
a. Generally not allowed unless authorized by statute
b. Always allowed
c. Never allowed
d. Allowed by courts
50. Taxation power normally belongs to:
a. Legislature
b. Executive
c. Judiciary
d. Police
51. Conditional legislation means:
a. Law becomes effective upon fulfillment of certain conditions
b. Law made by courts
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract enforcement
52. In conditional legislation:
a. Legislature determines policy
b. Executive decides when it applies
c. Both A and B
d. None
53. Delegated legislation must conform to:
a. Parent statute
b. Constitution
c. Both A and B
d. None
54. If delegated legislation exceeds authority of statute:
a. It becomes ultra vires
b. It becomes criminal law
c. It becomes contract law
d. It becomes constitutional law
55. Judicial control over delegated legislation includes:
a. Doctrine of ultra vires
b. Judicial review
c. Both A and B
d. None
56. One landmark case on delegated legislation is:
a. A.K. Roy v Union of India
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Ashby v White
57. Delegated legislation is valid if:
a. Legislative policy is clearly defined
b. Unlimited discretion given
c. No guidance provided
d. Courts control policy
58. Delegated legislation is important in modern governance because:
a. Government functions have expanded
b. Legislature has limited time
c. Technical matters require expert rules
d. All of the above
59. The main objective of delegated legislation is:
a. Efficient implementation of laws
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property transfer
d. Contract enforcement
60. Control of delegated legislation ensures:
a. Unlimited executive power
b. Accountability of delegated authorities
c. Removal of legislature
d. Criminal punishment
61. The three main types of control over delegated legislation are:
a. Parliamentary, Procedural, Judicial
b. Criminal, Civil, Administrative
c. Legislative, Executive, Police
d. Contractual, Constitutional, Property
62. Parliamentary control over delegated legislation means:
a. Control exercised by judiciary
b. Control exercised by legislature
c. Control exercised by executive
d. Control exercised by police
63. Parliamentary control ensures that delegated legislation:
a. Conforms to the policy of the legislature
b. Replaces legislation
c. Removes courts
d. Removes executive
64. One method of parliamentary control is:
a. Laying procedure before legislature
b. Criminal punishment
c. Judicial review
d. Police control
65. The “laying procedure” requires:
a. Rules to be placed before legislature
b. Rules to be placed before court
c. Rules to be placed before police
d. Rules to be placed before executive
66. Procedural control refers to:
a. Following required procedure in making delegated legislation
b. Criminal prosecution
c. Contract enforcement
d. Judicial decision
67. One element of procedural control is:
a. Publication
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property transfer
d. Contract formation
68. Publication of delegated legislation ensures:
a. Public awareness of rules
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property rights
d. Contract enforcement
69. Without proper publication:
a. Delegated legislation may become invalid
b. Delegated legislation becomes stronger
c. Courts cannot interfere
d. Police control increases
70. Consultation as procedural control means:
a. Taking advice of affected persons or authorities
b. Criminal investigation
c. Contract negotiation
d. Property registration
71. Consultation may be:
a. Mandatory
b. Directory
c. Both A and B
d. None
72. If mandatory consultation is not followed:
a. Delegated legislation may be invalid
b. Law becomes stronger
c. Courts cannot interfere
d. Government decides
73. Judicial control over delegated legislation is exercised by:
a. Legislature
b. Courts
c. Executive
d. Police
74. Judicial control mainly operates through:
a. Doctrine of ultra vires
b. Criminal prosecution
c. Contract enforcement
d. Property transfer
75. Ultra vires means:
a. Within powers
b. Beyond powers
c. Criminal act
d. Property dispute
76. Substantive ultra vires occurs when:
a. Delegated authority exceeds powers granted by statute
b. Proper procedure followed
c. Consultation followed
d. Publication done
77. Procedural ultra vires occurs when:
a. Required procedure is not followed
b. Authority acts within power
c. Legislature approves rules
d. Courts approve rules
78. If delegated legislation violates parent statute:
a. It becomes ultra vires
b. It becomes valid
c. It becomes criminal law
d. It becomes constitutional amendment
79. Judicial control protects:
a. Absence of Power
b. Arbitrary power
c. Unlimited discretion
d. Rule of Law
80. Landmark case on publication requirement is:
a. Harla v State of Rajasthan
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Kesavananda Bharati
81. In Harla v State of Rajasthan, the court held:
a. Law must be published to be valid
b. Publication not required
c. Legislature invalid
d. Courts powerless
82. Landmark case on consultation requirement is:
a. BS Nehra Case
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Ashby v White
d. AK Roy V UOI
83. Judicial control may declare delegated legislation:
a. Void if ultra vires
b. Criminal law
c. Contract law
d. Property law
84. Procedural requirements in delegated legislation are intended to:
a. Ensure fairness and transparency
b. Punish criminals
c. Transfer property
d.Enforce contracts
85. Courts review delegated legislation to ensure:
a. It does not exceed statutory power
b. It replaces constitution
c. It removes legislature
d. It removes judiciary
86. Parliamentary control mainly operates:
a. Before and after rules are made
b.Only before rules
c. Only after rules
d. Never
87. Judicial review of delegated legislation ensures:
a. Criminal punishment
b. Unlimited administrative power
c. Removal of courts
d. Protection against misuse of delegated powers
88. Delegated legislation inconsistent with constitution is:
a. Void
b. Valid
c. Criminal offence
d. Contract
89. The main objective of control over delegated legislation is:
a. Prevent abuse of delegated power
b. Strengthen executive authority
c. Remove judiciary
d. Remove legislature
90. Administrative discretion means:
a. Absolute power of administration
b. Power to choose between alternative courses of action
c. Judicial decision
d. Legislative authority
91. Administrative discretion is necessary because:
a. Legislature cannot foresee every situation
b. Administrative efficiency is required
c. Flexibility in governance is needed
d. All of the above
92. Administrative discretion must always be exercised:
a. Arbitrarily
b. Within legal limits
c. Secretly
d. Without review
93. Judicial control of administrative discretion mainly ensures:
a. Political accountability
b. Prevention of abuse of power
c. Criminal punishment
d. Legislative supremacy
94. Control at the stage of conferment of discretion arises under:
a. Article 14 and 19
b. Article 21 only
c. Article 32 only
d. Article 368
95. Article 14 of the Constitution ensures:
a. Equality before law
b. Freedom of speech
c. Property rights
d. Religious freedom
96. If discretionary power violates Article 14, it becomes:
a. Valid
b. Arbitrary and unconstitutional
c. Contractual
d. Criminal offence
97. Excessive delegation of discretionary power may violate:
a. Article 14
b. Article 21
c. Article 51
d. Article 300
98. Abuse of administrative discretion occurs when:
a. Authority acts within power
b. Authority misuses power
c. Authority consults legislature
d. Authority follows procedure
99. Mala fide exercise of discretion means:
a. Good faith
b. Bad faith
c. Judicial faith
d.Constitutional faith
100.Mala fide exercise of power refers to:
a.Honest mistake
b.Improper motive
c. Legal procedure
d. Constitutional amendment
101. Improper purpose occurs when power is used:
a. For intended purpose
b. For purpose not authorized by law
c. According to policy
d. According to statute
102. Ignoring relevant considerations leads to:
a. Proper discretion
b. Abuse of discretion
c. Judicial legislation
d. Criminal liability
103. Considering irrelevant factors leads to:
a. Proper exercise of discretion
b. Invalid administrative decision
c. Legislative action
d. Criminal prosecution
104. The doctrine of Wednesbury unreasonableness originated in:
a. India
b. England
c. USA
d. France
105. Wednesbury principle means:
a. Decision so unreasonable that no reasonable authority would make it
b. Judicial supremacy
c. Criminal liability
d. Legislative review
106. The Wednesbury case is:
a. Associated Provincial Picture Houses v Wednesbury Corporation
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Kesavananda Bharati
d. Maneka Gandhi
107. Non-application of mind occurs when:
a. Authority fails to consider facts
b. Authority carefully examines facts
c. Authority consults experts
d. Authority acts legally
108. Acting under dictation means:
a. Authority exercises independent judgment
b. Authority follows orders of another authority blindly
c. Authority consults others
d. Authority reviews law
109. If authority acts under dictation:
a. Decision becomes valid
b. Decision becomes invalid
c. Decision becomes legislative
d. Decision becomes criminal
110. Imposing fetters on discretion means:
a. Authority refuses to exercise discretion independently
b. Authority uses discretion properly
c. Authority consults experts
d. Authority applies rules
111. Acting mechanically without due care results in:
a. Proper administration
b. Abuse of discretion
c. Legislative control
d. Criminal liability
112. Sub-delegation means:
a. Delegating power further by delegate
b. Judicial decision
c. Parliamentary power
d. Constitutional amendment
113. Sub-delegation is generally governed by the principle:
a. Delegatus non potest delegare
b. Res judicata
c. Ultra vires
d. Habeas corpus
114. Promissory estoppel prevents:
a. Breaking of promise relied upon by another
b. Contract formation
c. Legislative amendment
d. Criminal prosecution
115. Doctrine of promissory estoppel was applied in India in:
a. Union of India v Anglo Afghan Agencies
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Kesavananda Bharati
116. Legitimate expectation arises when:
a. Government promise creates expectation
b. Contract signed
c. Criminal offence occurs
d. Court orders action
117. Landmark case on legitimate expectation:
a. Navjyoti Cooperative Group Housing Society case
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Bolam case
118. Subjective satisfaction refers to:
a. Personal satisfaction of authority
b. Objective judicial test
c. Contractual satisfaction
d. Legislative satisfaction
119. Courts review subjective satisfaction when:
a. Mala fide exists
b. No evidence exists
c. Power abused
d. All of the above
120. Cross-examination is part of:
a. Natural justice
b. Criminal punishment
c. Legislative function
d. Executive privilege
121. Right to legal representation refers to:
a. Right to counsel
b. Right to property
c. Right to vote
d. Right to religion
122. Legal representation may be allowed when:
a. Case involves complex issues
b. Criminal prosecution
c. Administrative hearing
d. All of the above
123. Judicial review of administrative discretion ensures:
a. Legality
b. Fairness
c. Rationality
d. All of the above
124. Doctrine of fairness requires:
a. Arbitrary decision
b. Fair procedure
c. Secret decision
d. Political decision
125. Doctrine of proportionality means:
a. Punishment must be proportionate to misconduct
b. Punishment must be harsh
c. Punishment must be secret
d. Punishment must be political
126. Proportionality principle is widely applied in:
a. Administrative law
b. Criminal law
c. Property law
d. Contract law
127. Proportionality test ensures:
a. Balance between action and objective
b. Absolute executive power
c. Criminal punishment
d. Legislative supremacy
128. Proportionality doctrine originated mainly in:
a. Germany
b. England
c. India
d. France
129. Proportionality principle in India was applied in:
a. Om Kumar v Union of India
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Rylands v Fletcher
d. Ashby v White
130. Proportionality in service law examines:
a. Whether punishment is excessive
b. Whether contract exists
c. Whether criminal offence occurred
d. Whether property transferred
131. Judicial review of punishment ensures:
a. Fairness
b. Reasonableness
c. Proportionality
d. All of the above
132. If discretion violates Article 14:
a. It is unconstitutional
b. It is valid
c. It is criminal law
d. It is contract law
133. Judicial review mainly protects:
a. Rule of law
b. Arbitrary rule
c. Executive supremacy
d. Police authority
134. Administrative discretion should be exercised:
a. Arbitrarily
b. Reasonably
c. Secretly
d. Politically
135. Abuse of discretion includes:
a. Mala fide
b. Irrelevant considerations
c. Non-application of mind
d. All of the above