The Probation of Offenders Act MCQs PDF
1. The Probation of Offenders Act was enacted in the year:
a. 1950
b. 1956
c. 1958
d. 1962
2. The Probation of Offenders Act is numbered as:
a. Act No. 18 of 1958
b. Act No. 19 of 1958
c. Act No. 20 of 1958
d. Act No. 21 of 1958
3. The Probation of Offenders Act received assent on:
a. 26 January 1958
b. 16 May 1958
c. 15 August 1958
d. 1 April 1958
4. The Act was enacted by Parliament in the ______ year of the Republic of India.
a. Ninth
b. Eighth
c. Seventh
d. Tenth
5. The main purpose of the Probation of Offenders Act is:
a. To impose stricter punishments
b. To regulate prison administration
c. To regulate banking offences
d. To provide release of offenders on probation or after due admonition
6. The Act primarily follows which theory of punishment?
a. Reformative theory
b. Retributive theory
c. Deterrent theory
d. Preventive theory
7. The Probation of Offenders Act provides for release of offenders:
a. Only after imprisonment
b. Only after payment of fine
c. On probation or after due admonition
d. Only after presidential pardon
8. The phrase “for matters connected therewith” in the Preamble indicates:
a. Matters related to taxation
b. Matters related to probation and admonition
c. Matters related to civil disputes
d. Matters related to constitutional amendments
9. Section 1 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Short title, extent and commencement
c. Power of court to release offenders
d. Duties of probation officer
10. The short title of the Act is:
a. Probation Act, 1958
b. Offenders Probation Act, 1958
c. Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
d. Criminal Probation Act, 1958
11. The Probation of Offenders Act extends to:
a. Only Union Territories
b. Whole of India
c. Only States
d. Only metropolitan cities
12. The Act comes into force in a State on:
a. Date of Presidential assent
b. Date fixed by the High Court
c. Date notified by the State Government in the Official Gazette
d. Date notified by the Supreme Court
13. The authority empowered to appoint the date of commencement of the Act in a State is:
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. District Magistrate
d. State Government
14. The commencement of the Act must be notified in:
a. Government Press
b. Official Gazette
c. Court Records
d. Parliamentary Bulletin
15. Under Section 1, different commencement dates may be appointed for:
a. Different offences
b. Different courts
c. Different parts of the State
d. Different probation officers
16. Section 2 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Probation procedure
b. Definitions
c. Powers of courts
d. Duties of police
17. Under Section 2, the term “Code” means:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Civil Procedure Code
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898
d. Evidence Act
18. The expression “probation officer” means:
a. Any police officer
b. Any prison officer
c. Any magistrate
d. An officer appointed or recognised under Section 13
19. The term “prescribed” under the Act means:
a. Prescribed by the High Court
b. Prescribed by rules made under the Act
c. Prescribed by the Supreme Court
d. Prescribed by the Governor
20. Words not defined in the Probation of Offenders Act but defined in the Code shall have:
a. No meaning
b. Meaning assigned by the State Government
c. Meaning assigned in the Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Meaning assigned in the Indian Penal Code
21. The definitions in Section 2 apply:
a. Unless the context otherwise requires
b. Only to probation officers
c. Only to courts
d. Only during trial
22. The meaning of words used but not defined in the Act will be taken from:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898
c. Evidence Act
d. Civil Procedure Code
23. Section 3 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Release on probation
b. Release after admonition
c. Appointment of probation officers
d. Powers of appellate court
24. Under Section 3, the court may release an offender:
a. After imprisonment
b. After payment of compensation
c. After due admonition
d. After police warning
25. Section 3 applies when a person is found guilty of offences under which IPC sections?
a. 302, 304
b. 379, 380, 381, 404, 420
c. 121, 124A
d. 395, 396
26. Section 3 also applies to offences punishable with imprisonment not exceeding:
a. Two year
b. Four years
c. Three years
d. Five years
27. Section 3 applies to offences punishable with:
a. Death only
b. Life imprisonment
c. Imprisonment up to two years or fine or both
d. Only fine exceeding ₹10,000
28. A necessary condition for release under Section 3 is that:
a. The offender must be a juvenile
b. No previous conviction must be proved against the offender
c. The offence must be bailable
d. The offender must plead guilty
29. Before releasing a person after admonition, the court must consider:
a. Only the nature of the offence
b. Only the character of the offender
c. Circumstances of the case, nature of offence, and character of the offender
d. Opinion of the police officer
30. The power under Section 3 can be exercised:
a. Only by High Court
b. Only by Sessions Court
c. By the court which finds the person guilty
d. Only by Magistrate First Class
31. Release after admonition under Section 3 may be granted:
a. In addition to punishment
b. Instead of sentencing the offender to punishment
c. Only after imprisonment
d. Only after payment of fine
32. Section 3 operates:
a. Subject to all other laws
b. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
c. Only under IPC
d. Only under CrPC
33. Under Section 3, the court may release the offender after admonition instead of releasing him under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 10
c. Section 5
d. Section 4
34. According to the Explanation to Section 3, previous conviction includes:
a. Only conviction under IPC
b. Conviction under any civil law
c. Previous order under Section 3 or Section 4
d. Police warning
35. For the purposes of Section 3, an earlier order under Section 3 or Section 4 shall be treated as:
a. No conviction
b. Previous conviction
c. Civil liability
d. Administrative action
36. Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Release after admonition
b. Release on probation of good conduct
c. Appointment of probation officers
d. Compensation to victims
37. Section 4 applies to offences which are:
a. Punishable with death
b. Punishable with life imprisonment
c. Not punishable with death or imprisonment for life
d. Punishable only with fine
38. Under Section 4, the court may release the offender:
a. On probation of good conduct
b. After serving half sentence
c. On police warning
d. After payment of compensation
39. The power under Section 4 may be exercised by:
a. Only High Court
b. Only Sessions Court
c. The court which finds the person guilty
d. Only Magistrate First Class
40. The court may release the offender on probation instead of:
a. Imposing death penalty
b. Sentencing him at once to punishment
c. Conducting trial
d. Filing charge sheet
41. For release under Section 4, the offender must enter into:
a. Bail bond
b. Personal bond
c. Security bond only
d. Bond with or without sureties
42. The bond requires the offender to:
a. Leave the jurisdiction
b. Appear and receive sentence when called upon
c. Pay compensation
d. Join police service
43. The maximum period for which such bond may be taken under Section 4 is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
44. During the probation period, the offender must:
a. Remain in jail
b. Keep the peace and be of good behaviour
c. Report daily to police
d. Leave the State
45. The court shall not release an offender on probation unless:
a. He confesses guilt
b. He pays compensation
c. He or his surety has a fixed place of abode or regular occupation within jurisdiction
d. Police approves the release
46. The fixed place of abode or occupation must be:
a. Anywhere in India
b. Within the jurisdiction of the court or where the offender is likely to live
c. Only in the capital city
d. Only in the district headquarters
47. Before making an order under Section 4(1), the court shall consider:
a. Police report
b. Report of probation officer, if any
c. Report of jail authority
d. Report of village headman
48. The provision allowing release on probation operates:
a. Subject to all other laws
b. Only under IPC
c. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
d. Only under CrPC
49. When a court releases an offender on probation under Section 4(1), it may additionally pass:
a. A conviction order
b. A supervision order
c. A detention order
d. A recovery order
50. A supervision order directs that the offender shall remain under the supervision of:
a. Police officer
b. Magistrate
c. Probation officer named in the order
d. Jail superintendent
51. The supervision period specified in the order shall not be less than:
a. One year
b. Six Months
c. Two years
d. Three years
52. Conditions imposed in a supervision order are meant for:
a. Punishment of the offender
b. Due supervision of the offender
c. Increasing the penalty
d. Recovery of damages
53. Before releasing the offender under a supervision order, the court shall require him to:
a. Deposit security
b. Sign a confession
c. Pay compensation
d. Enter into a bond
54. The bond required under Section 4(4) may be executed:
a. Only with sureties
b. Only without sureties
c. With or without sureties
d. Only before a magistrate
55. The offender must observe the conditions specified in:
a. The IPC
b. The supervision order
c. The police report
d. The charge sheet
56. Additional conditions imposed by the court may relate to:
a. Residence and abstention from intoxicants
b. Property transfer
c. Employment contract
d. Court attendance daily
57. The purpose of imposing additional conditions is to:
a. Increase punishment
b. Prevent repetition of the same offence or commission of other offences
c. Delay proceedings
d. Secure compensation
58. The court making a supervision order must explain its terms to:
a. The offender
b. The police officer
c. The complainant
d. The public prosecutor
59. A copy of the supervision order must be given to:
a. Only the offender
b. Offender, sureties if any, and probation officer
c. Only the complainant
d. Only the police station
60. The copy of the supervision order must be furnished:
a. Within one week
b. Within one month
c. Forthwith
d. After completion of probation
61. Section 5 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Appointment of probation officers
b. Compensation and costs payable by released offenders
c. Imprisonment of offenders
d. Appeal procedure
62. Section 5 applies when an offender is released under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 7
c. Section 3 or section 4
d. Section 10
63. The court may order payment of compensation for:
a. Court expenses
b. Loss or injury caused to any person by the offence
c. Government loss
d. Police investigation
64. The compensation ordered must be:
a. Fixed by statute
b. Determined by police
c. Reasonable as determined by the court
d. Decided by complainant
65. The court may also order the offender to pay:
a. Interest
b. Costs of the proceedings
c. Government penalty
d. Police charges
66. The amount ordered under Section 5 may be recovered:
a. As civil damages
b. By Imprisonment
c. Through attachment only
d. As a fine
67. Recovery of such amount as fine is governed by which sections of the Code?
a. Sections 386 and 387
b. Sections 316 and 354
c. Sections 410 and 411
d. Sections 300 and 301
68. A civil court trying a suit arising out of the same matter shall:
a. Ignore compensation paid
b. Take into account compensation paid under Section 5
c. Refund compensation
d. Double compensation
69. Section 6 deals with:
a. Compensation
b. Restrictions on imprisonment of offenders under 21 years
c. Appointment of probation officers
d. Confidentiality of reports
70. Section 6 applies to offenders who are:
a. Under 21 years
b. Under 18 years
c. Under 25 years
d. Under 30 years
71. Section 6 applies when the offence is punishable with:
a. Death
b. Imprisonment for life
c. Imprisonment but not life imprisonment
d. Fine only
72. The court shall not sentence such offender to imprisonment unless:
a. Police recommends imprisonment
b. Court finds it undesirable to deal with him under Section 3 or 4
c. Complainant demands imprisonment
d. Government directs imprisonment
73. Before sentencing the offender to imprisonment, the court must consider:
a. Only nature of offence
b. Witness statements only
c. Police report only
d. Circumstances of the case, nature of offence and character of offender
74. If the court sentences such offender to imprisonment, it must:
a. Inform High Court
b. Record its reasons
c. Seek government approval
d. Conduct fresh trial
75. Before deciding whether to apply Sections 3 or 4, the court shall:
a. Call for a probation officer’s report
b. Consult police
c. Refer case to High Court
d. Conduct civil inquiry
76. The court shall consider the probation officer’s report regarding:
a. Property of offender
b. Character and physical and mental condition of offender
c. Family income
d. Social status
77. Section 7 deals with:
a. Appointment of probation officers
b. Confidentiality of probation officer’s report
c. Appeal procedure
d. Compensation to victims
78. The report of the probation officer referred to in Section 4(2) or Section 6(2) shall be treated as:
a. Public record
b. Police Document
c. Confidential
d. Court decree
79. The court may communicate the substance of the probation officer’s report to:
a. Offender
b. Police Officer
c. Government
d. Complainant
80. After communicating the substance of the report, the offender may be given an opportunity to:
a. Withdraw the case
b. Produce evidence relevant to the matters stated in the report
c. File appeal
d. Seek bail
81. Section 8 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Compensation to victims
b. Variation of conditions of probation
c. Appointment of probation officers
d. Confidentiality of reports
82. An application for variation of probation conditions may be made by:
a. Police officer
b. Public prosecutor
c. Probation officer
d. Complainant
83. The power to vary conditions of probation is exercised by:
a. Any criminal court
b. The High Court only
c. The court which passed the order under Section 4
d. The Sessions Court only
84. The court may vary the bond:
a. Only after completion of probation period
b. At any time during the period when the bond is effective
c. Only within six months
d. Only after approval of State Government
85. Variation of the bond may include:
a. Cancelling conviction
b. Imposing imprisonment
c. Extending or diminishing the duration of the bond
d. Ordering retrial
86. The duration of the bond after variation shall not exceed:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years from the date of the original order
d. Five years
87. The court may also vary the bond by:
a. Altering existing conditions or inserting additional conditions
b. Cancelling the probation officer
c. Cancelling the offence
d. Changing the complainant
88. Before varying the bond conditions, the court must give an opportunity of being heard to:
a. Only the offender
b. Only the probation officer
c. The offender and the surety or sureties
d. Only the complainant
89. If any surety refuses to consent to the variation of the bond:
a. The bond automatically ends
b. The court may require the offender to enter into a fresh bond
c. The offender is acquitted
d. The probation officer decides the matter
90. If the offender refuses or fails to enter into a fresh bond when required:
a. He is released
b. He is fined
c. He may be sentenced for the offence of which he was found guilty
d. The probation order continues automatically
91. The court may discharge the bond entered into by the offender if:
a. The complainant withdraws the case
b. The probation officer applies and the court finds supervision unnecessary
c. The police recommends it
d. The offender pays compensation
92. The court may discharge the bond when it is satisfied that:
a. The offender has paid costs
b. The offender changes residence
c. The offence was minor
d. The conduct of the offender has been satisfactory and supervision is unnecessary
93. Section 9 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Failure of offender to observe conditions of bond
b. Appointment of probation officers
c. Compensation to victims
d. Variation of probation
94. Action under Section 9 may be taken when the court has reason to believe that:
a. The offender committed a new offence
b. The offender failed to observe conditions of the bond
c. The offender absconded permanently
d. The offender changed residence
95. The belief that the offender violated bond conditions may arise from:
a. Report of probation officer or otherwise
b. Police complaint only
c. Public complaint only
d. Government direction
96. The power under Section 9 may be exercised by:
a. Only the High Court
b. Only the Sessions Court
c. The court which passed the order under Section 4 or any court competent to deal with the original offence
d. Only the Magistrate First Class
97. When the court believes the bond conditions are violated, it may issue:
a. Arrest order only
b. Arrest warrant or summons
c. Search warrant only
d. Detention order
98. A summons may require attendance of:
a. Only the offender
b. Only the probation officer
c. The offender and his sureties, if any
d. Only the complainant
99. When the offender appears before the court, the court may:
a. Immediately imprison him
b. Remand him to custody or grant bail
c. Close the case
d. Transfer the case
100. Bail granted by the court under Section 9 may be:
a. Only without surety
b. Only with surety
c. With or without surety
d. Only with government approval
101. After hearing the case, if the court finds that the offender violated bond conditions, it may:
a. Cancel the conviction
b. Sentence him for the original offence
c. Refer the matter to police
d. Release him automatically
102. If the violation occurs for the first time, the court may:
a. Automatically imprison the offender
b. Cancel probation
c. Impose a penalty not exceeding fifty rupees
d. Refer the matter to the High Court
103. Imposition of penalty for first violation shall be:
a. In place of the bond
b. Without prejudice to the continuance of the bond
c. Equivalent to imprisonment
d. Equal to compensation
104. The maximum penalty for first failure to observe bond conditions is:
a. ₹25
b. ₹500
c. ₹100
d. ₹50
105. If the penalty imposed is not paid within the time fixed by the court:
a. The bond automatically lapses
b. The offender is acquitted
c. The court may sentence the offender for the original offence
d. The probation officer decides the punishment
106. Section 10 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Appointment of probation officers
b. Sureties and bonds under the Act
c. Compensation
d. Appeal procedure
107. Section 10 provides that certain provisions of the Code shall apply to:
a. Trials
b. Appeals
c. Bonds and sureties under this Act
d. Civil proceedings
108. The provisions of the Code apply to bonds and sureties:
a. Exactly as written
b. So far as may be applicable
c. Only partially
d. Only with government approval
109. Which section of the Code relating to security proceedings is applicable under Section 10?
a. Section 120
b. Section 140
c. Section 130
d. Section 122
110. Section 10 makes applicable provisions of the Code including Section:
a. 126
b. 200
c. 300
d. 350
111. Which of the following sections of the Code is also made applicable under Section 10?
a. Section 213
b. Section 302
c. Section 514
d. Section 420
112. Section 10 also applies provisions of the Code such as:
a. Sections 255A, 126A
b. Sections 144, 145
c. Sections 300, 301
d. Sections 126A, 406A
113. Section 10 further applies provisions relating to forfeiture of bonds such as:
a. Sections 514A and 514B
b. Sections 200 and 201
c. Sections 400 and 401
d. Sections 100 and 101
114. The provisions of Section 515 of the Code are also applicable to:
a. Civil suits
b. Bonds and sureties under this Act
c. Appeals
d. Police investigations
115. Section 11 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Appointment of probation officers
b. Competent courts, appeal and revision
c. Compensation
d. Confidentiality of reports
116. An order under the Probation of Offenders Act may be made by:
a. Only the High Court
b. Only the Sessions Court
c. Any court empowered to try and sentence the offender to imprisonment
d. Only Magistrate First Class
117. Orders under the Act may also be made by:
a. Police officer
b. High Court or any other court when the case comes before it in appeal or revision
c. District Collector
d. Government authority
118. Section 11 begins with the phrase:
a. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code or any other law
b. Subject to the Code
c. As per CrPC
d. As directed by Government
119. Where an order under Section 3 or Section 4 is made by a court other than the High Court, an appeal shall lie to:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court only
c. The court to which appeals ordinarily lie from the sentences of that court
d. District Magistrate
120. Section 11(2) provides for appeal against orders passed under:
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 2
d. Section 3 or Section 4
121. Section 11(3) applies when the offender is:
a. Under 21 years
b. Under 18 years
c. Under 25 years
d. Under 30 years
122. Section 11(3) applies when the court:
a. Releases the offender under Section 3
b. Declines to deal with the offender under Section 3 or Section 4 and sentences him to imprisonment
c. Acquits the offender
d. Transfers the case
123. Where no appeal lies or is preferred against such sentence, the appellate court may:
a. Call for and examine the record of the case
b. Refer the case to police
c. Cancel the conviction
d. Close the proceedings
124. The appellate court may examine the record:
a. Only on police request
b. Only on government order
c. Either on its own motion or on application by the convicted person or probation officer
d. Only on victim's request
125. When examining the record under Section 11(3), the appellate court may:
a. Cancel the offence
b. Transfer the case
c. Order retrial only
d. Pass such order as it thinks fit
126. When an order under Section 3 or Section 4 has been made, the Appellate Court or High Court in revision may:
a. Confirm the order only
b. Set aside the order
c. Cancel the conviction automatically
d. Refer the case to police
127. After setting aside the order under Section 3 or 4, the appellate or revisional court may:
a. Order acquittal
b. Pass sentence according to law
c. Close the case
d. Transfer the matter
128. The Appellate Court or High Court in revision shall not impose:
a. Any punishment
b. Fine
c. A punishment greater than that which could have been imposed by the trial court
d. Imprisonment
129. Section 12 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Appointment of probation officers
b. Removal of disqualification attaching to conviction
c. Compensation
d. Appeal procedure
130. Section 12 begins with the words:
a. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
b. Subject to the Code
c. According to Government rules
d. As directed by the court
131. Section 12 applies to persons dealt with under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3 or Section 4
c. Section 6
d. Section 8
132. A person dealt with under Section 3 or Section 4 shall not suffer:
a. Disqualification attaching to conviction under any law
b. Civil liability
c. Police supervision
d. Fine
133. The benefit of Section 12 removes:
a. Punishment
b. Disqualification arising from conviction
c. Compensation liability
d. Trial procedure
134. The protection under Section 12 will not apply when:
a. The offender commits a civil wrong
b. The offender pays compensation
c. The offender moves to another district
d. The offender is subsequently sentenced for the original offence after release under Section 4
135. Section 13 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Appeal procedure
b. Appointment and functions of probation officers
c. Compensation
d. Confidentiality of reports
136. A probation officer under the Act may be:
a. Only a police officer
b. Only a government lawyer
c. Only a magistrate
d. A person appointed or recognised by the State Government
137. A probation officer may also be:
a. A person provided by a society recognised by the State Government
b. A private investigator
c. A police constable
d. A court clerk
138. In exceptional cases, the court may appoint as probation officer:
a. Any government officer
b. Any person whom the court considers fit in the circumstances
c. Only police personnel
d. Only district magistrate
139. The court which passes an order under which section may appoint a probation officer?
a. Section 3
b. Section 6
c. Section 5
d. Section 4
140. Apart from the court, who may appoint a probation officer in place of the one named in the supervision order?
a. Police Superintendent
b. District Magistrate of the district where the offender resides
c. High Court
d. State Legislature
141. The District Magistrate who may appoint a probation officer must belong to:
a. The district where the offence occurred
b. The district where the offender resides
c. The capital city
d. Any district of the State
142. For the purpose of Section 13, a presidency town shall be deemed to be:
a. A State
b. A police station
c. A district
d. A court
143. In a presidency town, the Chief Presidency Magistrate shall be deemed to be:
a. Sessions Judge
b. District Magistrate
c. High Court Judge
d. Police Commissioner
144. A probation officer in the discharge of duties under this Act shall be subject to the control of:
a. Police Superintendent
b. District Magistrate of the district where the offender resides
c. High Court
d. State Government directly
145. Section 14 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Duties of probation officers
b. Appointment of probation officers
c. Appeal procedure
d. Compensation
146. The duties of probation officers are to be performed subject to:
a. Orders of police
b. Directions of jail authorities
c. Orders of complainant
d. Conditions and restrictions as may be prescribed
147. A probation officer may inquire into the circumstances of:
a. Only civil defendants
b. Only juvenile offenders
c. Any person accused of an offence
d. Only convicted persons
148. Inquiry by the probation officer is conducted:
a. On police instructions
b. On request of complainant
c. On government orders
d. In accordance with directions of the court
149. The purpose of such inquiry is to assist the court in determining:
a. The most suitable method of dealing with the accused
b. The guilt of the accused
c. The punishment only
d. The police investigation
150. After inquiry, the probation officer shall:
a. Submit reports to the court
b. Inform the police
c. Inform the victim
d. File a civil suit
151. A probation officer shall supervise:
a. Court clerks
b. Police officers
c. Probationers and other persons placed under his supervision
d. Only prisoners
152. While supervising probationers, the probation officer shall endeavour to:
a. Transfer them to another district
b. Send them to jail
c. Arrest them if necessary
d. Find them suitable employment where necessary
153. A probation officer shall advise and assist offenders in:
a. Changing residence
b. Payment of compensation or costs ordered by the court
c. Avoiding court appearance
d. Filing appeals
154. A probation officer shall advise and assist persons released under:
a. Section 6
b. Section 5
c. Section 4
d. Section 3
155. Assistance to persons released under Section 4 shall be provided:
a. In such cases and manner as may be prescribed
b. In all cases compulsorily
c. Only when directed by police
d. Only by court order
156. Apart from the specified duties, a probation officer shall also perform:
a. Police duties
b. Government administrative duties
c. Judicial duties
d. Such other duties as may be prescribed
157. Section 15 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Appeal procedure
b. Duties of probation officers
c. Appointment of probation officers
d. Status of probation officers as public servants
158. Under Section 15, probation officers are deemed to be:
a. Public servants
b. Government employees
c. Police officers
d. Judicial officers
159. The term "public servant" under Section 15 has the meaning assigned in:
a. Code of Criminal Procedure
b. Civil Procedure Code
c. Indian Penal Code
d. Evidence Act
160. Section 21 of which statute defines “public servant” for the purpose of Section 15?
a. Code of Criminal Procedure
b. Indian Penal Code
c. Civil Procedure Code
d. Indian Evidence Act
161. Apart from probation officers, which other persons are deemed public servants under Section 15?
a. Police officers
b. Court clerks
c. Officers appointed in pursuance of this Act
d. Public prosecutors
162. Section 16 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Duties of probation officers
b. Protection for actions taken in good faith
c. Appointment of probation officers
d. Appeal procedure
163. Under Section 16, no suit or legal proceeding shall lie against:
a. Only probation officers
b. Only State Government
c. State Government or officers appointed under the Act
d. Only the courts
164. Protection under Section 16 applies when an act is done:
a. Under police instructions
b. In good faith
c. With court approval
d. Under public demand
165. The protection extends to acts done:
a. Only under the Act
b. Only under court orders
c. Under the Act or rules or orders made thereunder
d. Only under government notification
166. Protection under Section 16 applies to acts:
a. Done or intended to be done in pursuance of the Act
b. Done for personal reasons
c. Done negligently
d. Done without authority
167. Section 17 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Protection of actions
b. Appeal procedure
c. Appointment of probation officers
d. Power to make rules
168. The authority empowered to make rules under Section 17 is:
a. Central Government
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. Supreme Court
169. The State Government may make rules:
a. With the approval of the Central Government
b. Without approval
c. With approval of the High Court
d. With approval of the District Magistrate
170. Rules under Section 17 must be notified in:
a. Court bulletin
b. Government website
c. Police record
d. Official Gazette
171. Rules under Section 17 are made to:
a. Replace the Act
b. Carry out the purposes of the Act
c. Amend the Act
d. Regulate police investigation
172. Rules may provide for:
a. Appointment of judges
b. Appointment of police officers
c. Appointment of public prosecutors
d. Appointment of probation officers
173. Rules may also prescribe:
a. Salaries of judges
b. Police training
c. Terms and conditions of service of probation officers
d. Court fees
174. Rules may specify the:
a. Jurisdiction of High Court
b. Jurisdiction of civil courts
c. Jurisdiction area of probation officers
d. Jurisdiction of police
175. Rules may provide for:
a. Criminal trials
b. Civil appeals
c. Prison administration
d. Duties of probation officers and submission of their reports
176. Rules may prescribe conditions for recognition of:
a. Police departments
b. Courts
c. Private companies
d. Societies providing probation officers
177. Rules may provide for payment of:
a. Judicial salaries
b. Police allowances
c. Prison expenses
d. Remuneration and expenses to probation officers
178. Rules may also provide for:
a. Subsidy to police stations
b. Subsidy to courts
c. Subsidy to societies providing probation officers
d. Subsidy to prisons
179. Rules may cover:
a. Only matters mentioned in the Act
b. Only criminal procedure
c. Only administrative matters
d. Any other matter which is to be or may be prescribed
180. Rules made under Section 17 are subject to:
a. Judicial approval
b. Presidential assent
c. Parliamentary approval
d. Previous publication
181. Rules made under this section shall be laid before:
a. Parliament
b. High Court
c. State Legislature
d. Supreme Court
182. Section 18 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Appeal procedure
b. Duties of probation officers
c. Power to make rules
d. Saving of operation of certain enactments
183. Section 18 provides that nothing in the Act shall affect the provisions of:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Civil Procedure Code
c. Reformatory Schools Act, 1897
d. Evidence Act
184. Section 18 also saves provisions of which statute?
a. Companies Act
b. Income Tax Act
c. Transfer of Property Act
d. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947
185. Section 18 also preserves laws relating to:
a. Banking offences
b. Civil disputes
c. Commercial disputes
d. Juvenile offenders
186. Laws relating to which institutions are also unaffected by this Act?
a. Police academies
b. Universities
c. Public sector undertakings
d. Borstal Schools
187. Section 19 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Power to make rules
b. Non-application of Section 562 of the Code
c. Duties of probation officers
d. Protection of actions
188. Section 19 provides that Section 562 of which Code shall cease to apply in certain areas?
a. Civil Procedure Code
b. Indian Penal Code
c. Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Indian Evidence Act
189. Section 562 referred to in Section 19 belongs to:
a. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Civil Procedure Code, 1908
d. Indian Penal Code, 1860
190. Section 562 of the Code shall cease to apply in:
a. All States automatically
b. States or parts thereof where the Probation of Offenders Act is brought into force
c. Only Union Territories
d. Only metropolitan cities
191. The non-application of Section 562 is:
a. Absolute and unconditional
b. Subject to the provisions of Section 18
c. Subject to approval of the High Court
d. Subject to police directions
The Probation of Offenders Act MCQs PDF