Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-3
1. Food Authority may establish:
a. Only one Scientific Panel
b. As many Scientific Panels as necessary
c. No panels
d. Only state panels
2. Which of the following is a Scientific Panel area?
a. Banking regulation
b. Food additives and processing aids
c. Taxation
d. Law enforcement
3. Which of the following is included in Scientific Panels?
a. Pesticides and antibiotic residues
b. Election management
c. Police reforms
d. Civil engineering
4. GMOs and foods are covered under:
a. Central Advisory Committee
b. Scientific Panels
c. Selection Committee
d. Tribunal
5. Functional foods and nutraceuticals are part of:
a. Scientific Panels
b. Courts
c. Licensing body
d. Police department
6. Biological hazards are dealt with by:
a. Scientific Panels
b. Central Government only
c. Farmers’ unions
d. Consumers only
7. Labelling issues fall under:
a. Scientific Panels
b. Judiciary
c. Tax department
d. Police
8. Sampling and analysis methods are included in:
a. Central Advisory Committee
b. Scientific Panels
c. Parliament
d. State police
9. Scientific Panels can be re-constituted by:
a. State Government
b. Food Authority
c. Courts
d. Industry associations
10. Re-constitution of Panels may include:
a. Only removal of members
b. Addition, omission, or renaming of members/panels
c. Only increasing salary
d. Only legal changes
11. Scientific Panels ensure decisions are:
a. Politically driven
b. Scientifically based
c. Financially driven
d. Court directed only
12. The Scientific Committee of FSSAI consists of:
a. Only government officers
b. Chairpersons of Scientific Panels and independent experts
c. Only food inspectors
d. Industry representatives only
13. How many independent scientific experts are part of the Scientific Committee?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
14. Independent experts in the Scientific Committee:
a. Must belong to Scientific Panels
b. Do not belong or affiliate with Scientific Panels
c. Are selected by industry
d. Are state officers only
15. The Scientific Committee provides:
a. Legal judgments
b. Scientific opinions to the Food Authority
c. Financial audits
d. Licensing approvals
16. The Scientific Committee has power to:
a. Issue fines
b. Organise public hearings where necessary
c. Pass criminal orders
d. Approve budgets
17. The Scientific Committee ensures:
a. Political coordination
b. Consistency of scientific opinion procedures
c. Tax collection
d. Police coordination
18. Working procedures of Scientific Panels are:
a. Randomly decided
b. Adopted and harmonised by Scientific Committee
c. Set by courts
d. Set by private companies
19. Scientific Committee provides opinions on:
a. Only food exports
b. Multi-sectoral issues involving more than one panel
c. Only labelling
d. Only farming practices
20. Issues not falling under any Scientific Panel are handled by:
a. Central Advisory Committee
b. Scientific Committee
c. State Government
d. Selection Committee
21. The Scientific Committee may set up:
a. Police units
b. Working groups when necessary
c. Private firms
d. Courts
22. Working groups are used for:
a. Financial auditing
b. Scientific opinion support in complex cases
c. Tax collection
d. Food licensing
23. Scientific Committee ensures:
a. Legal enforcement
b. Coordination among Scientific Panels
c. Market pricing
d. Political lobbying
24. Scientific opinions of panels are:
a. Independent of Committee coordination
b. Coordinated by Scientific Committee
c. Ignored by Authority
d. Set by industry only
25. Public hearings may be organised by:
a. Central Government
b. Scientific Committee
c. State Police
d. Courts only
26. The Scientific Committee mainly focuses on:
a. Scientific consistency and coordination
b. Tax policy
c. Criminal prosecution
d. Export control
27. Members of the Scientific Committee and Panels are appointed by:
a. Central Government
b. Food Authority
c. State Government
d. Supreme Court
28. The tenure of members of Scientific Committee/Panel is:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years (renewable)
d. 5 years
29. Vacancy notices for Scientific Committee/Panel are published in:
a. Newspapers only
b. Leading scientific publications and FSSAI website
c. Government circulars only
d. Court bulletins
30. Scientific Committee and Panels choose their Chairperson from:
a. External experts
b. Among their own members
c. Government officials
d. Industry representatives only
31. Decisions of Scientific Committee and Panel are taken by:
a. Unanimity only
b. Majority of members
c. Chairperson alone
d. Government order
32. Views of members in Scientific Committee/Panel are:
a. Ignored
b. Recorded
c. Secret
d. Optional
33. Procedures for Scientific Committee and Panels are specified by:
a. Supreme Court
b. Regulations
c. Parliament speeches
d. State laws only
34. Procedure rules include limits on:
a. Food prices
b. Consecutive terms of members
c. Tax rates
d. Import duties
35. The number of members in each Scientific Panel is determined by:
a. Central Government
b. Regulations
c. Courts
d. Industry associations
36. Reimbursement of expenses for members is decided under:
a. Police rules
b. Procedure regulations
c. Tax laws
d. Industry policy
37. Assignment of scientific opinion tasks is decided by:
a. Scientific Committee and Panels
b. State police
c. Courts
d. Farmers
38. External experts may be included in:
a. Only Food Authority meetings
b. Working groups of Scientific Committee/Panel
c. Parliament committees
d. State Cabinet
39. Observers may be invited to:
a. Court hearings
b. Scientific Committee and Panel meetings
c. Police raids
d. Licensing offices only
40. Public hearings can be:
a. Prohibited always
b. Organised when necessary
c. Held only by courts
d. Held only by industry
41. Meeting procedures include:
a. Only salary matters
b. Quorum, notice, agenda, and related matters
c. Tax collection rules
d. Criminal penalties
42. The primary duty of the Food Authority is to:
a. Control food prices
b. Regulate and monitor food safety to ensure safe and wholesome food
c. Promote food export only
d. Issue tax policies for food industry
43. The Food Authority regulates:
a. Only manufacturing of food
b. Manufacture, processing, distribution, sale and import of food
c. Only import of food
d. Only retail sale of food
44. The Food Authority may specify standards and guidelines through:
a. Court orders
b. Regulations
c. State police rules
d. Industry agreements
45. Limits for food additives and contaminants are set by:
a. Food Authority regulations
b. State Governments only
c. Private laboratories
d. Farmers unions
46. Which of the following is included in regulatory limits?
a. Pesticide residues
b. Heavy metals
c. Antibiotics
d. All of the above
47. Accreditation of certification bodies is handled by:
a. Food Authority guidelines
b. Police department
c. Courts
d. Industry alone
48. Food import quality control procedures are specified by:
a. Central Advisory Committee
b. Food Authority regulations
c. State Governments
d. Export Council
49. Accreditation of laboratories is:
a. Not required
b. Done as per Food Authority procedure and guidelines
c. Done by police
d. Done by traders
50. Sampling and analysis methods are decided by:
a. Courts
b. Food Authority regulations
c. Farmers
d. Export agencies
51. Enforcement information exchange is between:
a. Consumers only
b. Enforcement authorities
c. Private companies
d. Banks
52. Food Authority may conduct:
a. Tax audits
b. Surveys of enforcement and administration
c. Criminal trials
d. Elections
53. Food labelling standards include:
a. Only price labels
b. Health and nutrition claims
c. Currency information
d. Banking details
54. Risk analysis procedure is specified by:
a. Parliament
b. Food Authority regulations
c. Police
d. Farmers
55. Food Authority ensures safety of:
a. Only packaged food
b. Food throughout supply chain
c. Only exported food
d. Only raw materials
56. Irradiation of food is regulated under:
a. Food Authority limits for contaminants/additives
b. Transport law
c. Banking law
d. Labour law
57. The Food Authority provides scientific advice to:
a. Only private companies
b. Central and State Governments
c. Only courts
d. Only farmers
58. Food Authority support includes:
a. Policy framing on food safety and nutrition
b. Tax collection
c. Police investigation
d. Banking regulation
59. Food Authority collects and analyses data on:
a. Weather patterns
b. Food consumption and exposure to risks
c. Stock markets
d. Transport systems
60. Which of the following is included in Food Authority data analysis?
a. Biological risk incidence and prevalence
b. Banking frauds
c. Election trends
d. Traffic data
61. Identification of emerging risks is:
a. Not required
b. A function of Food Authority
c. Only for police
d. Only for courts
62. Rapid alert system in food safety is:
a. A banking tool
b. Introduced and monitored by Food Authority
c. A transport system
d. A tax system
63. Risk assessment methodologies are developed and promoted by:
a. Courts
b. Food Authority
c. Police department
d. Private traders
64. Crisis management in food safety is supported by:
a. Food Authority and Government crisis units
b. Only courts
c. Private firms only
d. Farmers only
65. Food Authority helps in crisis management by:
a. Drawing up general plans
b. Ignoring emergencies
c. Fixing prices
d. Conducting elections
66. The Food Authority establishes networks for:
a. Political campaigning
b. Scientific cooperation and information exchange
c. Tax collection
d. Export licensing only
67. International cooperation in food safety is supported by:
a. Police department
b. Food Authority
c. Banks
d. Courts only
68. Food Authority ensures public receives:
a. Delayed and partial information
b. Rapid, reliable and comprehensive information
c. Only private data
d. No information
69. Training programmes in food safety are provided for:
a. Only inspectors
b. Food business operators and employees
c. Only consumers
d. Only exporters
70. Food Authority contributes to:
a. Military strategy
b. International food standards development
c. Currency regulation
d. Election process
71. Promotion of food safety awareness is:
a. Optional activity
b. A duty of Food Authority
c. Handled by police
d. Not required
72. The Food Authority must publish without undue delay:
a. Only budget reports
b. Opinions of Scientific Committee and Panels after adoption
c. Private company data
d. Tax records
73. Annual declarations of interest include:
a. Only industry members
b. Members of Food Authority and related committees
c. Only consumers
d. Only exporters
74. Declarations of interest also include those made for:
a. Travel plans
b. Agenda items of meetings
c. Personal investments unrelated to food
d. Banking transactions
75. The Food Authority publishes:
a. Only confidential data
b. Results of its scientific studies
c. Police reports
d. Court judgments
76. The Food Authority publishes:
a. Annual report of its activities
b. Private contracts
c. Salary slips
d. Export licenses only
77. Food Authority directions on food safety are binding on:
a. Consumers
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Farmers
d. Private traders only
78. Commissioner of Food Safety must follow directions issued by:
a. Courts
b. Food Authority
c. Police department
d. Banks
79. Confidential information received by Food Authority:
a. Must always be published
b. Must not be disclosed unless public health requires it
c. Can be sold to companies
d. Can be ignored
80. Confidential treatment is given when:
a. Requested and accepted
b. Always denied
c. Only for advertisements
d. Only for exports
81. Exception to confidentiality applies when:
a. Private profit is involved
b. Public health protection requires disclosure
c. Industry demands it
d. Courts ignore it
82. Scientific Committee opinions are published:
a. Before adoption
b. Immediately after adoption
c. After 10 years
d. Only if requested
83. The Food Authority ensures transparency through:
a. Non-disclosure of reports
b. Public disclosure of scientific and annual reports
c. Secret meetings only
d. Private circulation only
84. Directions by Food Authority relate to:
a. Only tax matters
b. Food safety and standards
c. Criminal law
d. Banking regulation
85. Commissioner of Food Safety acts:
a. Independently ignoring FSSAI
b. Bound by Food Authority directions
c. Only under police control
d. Only under courts
86. The main purpose of selective disclosure of confidential info is:
a. Increase profit
b. Protect public health
c. Hide information permanently
d. Promote exports
87. The Food Authority meets at:
a. Only State capitals
b. Head office or any of its offices
c. Only Supreme Court
d. Only Parliament
88. The rules of procedure for Food Authority meetings are specified by:
a. Courts
b. Regulations
c. Police
d. Industry associations
89. Quorum for Food Authority meetings is:
a. Fixed by Parliament
b. Specified by regulations
c. Decided by CEO
d. Not required
90. If the Chairperson is absent, the meeting is presided by:
a. CEO
b. Any Member nominated by Chairperson or Members present
c. State Minister
d. Police officer
91. In absence of nomination, the presiding Member is:
a. Selected by CEO
b. Chosen by Members present from among themselves
c. Selected by courts
d. Selected by industry
92. Decisions of the Food Authority are taken by:
a. Chairperson alone
b. Majority of Members present and voting
c. CEO alone
d. Central Government
93. In case of equality of votes, the Chairperson has:
a. No role
b. Casting vote
c. Extra salary
d. Veto permanently
94. Orders and decisions of Food Authority are authenticated by:
a. Chairperson
b. Chief Executive Officer
c. State Government
d. Court
95. The CEO in meetings has:
a. Voting rights
b. No voting right but can participate
c. No participation
d. Veto power
96. Chairperson of Scientific Committee may:
a. Vote in meetings
b. Attend meetings without voting right
c. Preside over Authority meetings
d. Replace Chairperson
97. Scientific Committee Chairperson attends meetings as:
a. Full voting member
b. Invitee without voting right
c. Chairperson of Authority
d. Observer with vote
98. Proceedings of Food Authority cannot be invalidated due to:
a. Legal judgment
b. Vacancy or defect in constitution
c. Budget issues only
d. Policy disagreement
99. The Chairperson directs:
a. Only court matters
b. Time and place of meetings
c. Salary structure
d. Police operations
100. Majority decision means:
a. Unanimous decision only
b. More than half of members present and voting
c. CEO decision
d. State approval
101. Casting vote is used when:
a. No members are present
b. Votes are equal
c. Chairperson is absent
d. Quorum is not met
102. The general principles of the Act guide implementation by:
a. Only private companies
b. Central Government, State Governments and Food Authority
c. Only courts
d. Only farmers
103. One of the key objectives is:
a. Increase taxation
b. Protection of human life, health and consumer interests
c. Promote exports only
d. Reduce food production
104. Fair practices in food trade relate to:
a. Food safety standards and practices
b. Banking rules
c. Police regulations
d. Labour laws only
105. Risk management includes:
a. Ignoring risk assessment
b. Taking into account risk assessment results and other relevant factors
c. Only trade decisions
d. Only consumer opinions
106. Risk management decisions are based on:
a. Only political opinion
b. Risk assessment and other relevant factors
c. Only industry profit
d. Only export demands
107. When scientific uncertainty persists, provisional measures may be:
a. Never adopted
b. Adopted for health protection
c. Ignored completely
d. Only recommended by industry
108. Provisional risk measures are taken:
a. Without any purpose
b. To ensure appropriate level of health protection
c. To increase trade
d. To reduce regulation
109. Such provisional measures are applied:
a. Permanently
b. Pending further scientific information
c. Only after court order
d. Only for exports
110. Measures adopted under uncertainty must be:
a. Highly restrictive always
b. Proportionate and not more restrictive than necessary
c. Completely unrestricted
d. Arbitrary
111. While adopting measures, consideration is given to:
a. Political pressure only
b. Technical and economic feasibility
c. Only industry demands
d. Only consumer complaints
112. The Act emphasizes achieving:
a. Maximum trade restriction
b. Appropriate level of health protection
c. Market monopoly
d. Export dominance only
113. Risk management must consider:
a. Only risk assessment
b. Risk assessment and other relevant factors
c. Only advertising
d. Only taxation
114. Scientific uncertainty allows:
a. No action ever
b. Temporary risk management measures
c. Permanent ban always
d. Ignoring risks
115. Consumer protection under the Act includes:
a. Only pricing
b. Fair practices in food trade
c. Banking rights
d. Tax benefits
116. The guiding principles ensure balance between:
a. Industry profit and monopoly
b. Health protection and trade feasibility
c. Export and import only
d. Courts and police
117. Measures adopted under risk management should be:
a. Permanent and unchangeable
b. Reviewed within a reasonable period of time
c. Ignored after implementation
d. Left to industry review
118. Review of measures depends on:
a. Political changes only
b. Nature of risk and scientific information needed
c. Market demand
d. Export policy
119. When there is suspicion of risk to human health, the Food Authority and Commissioner must:
a. Ignore the issue
b. Inform the general public
c. Wait for court order
d. Consult only industry
120. Public information on risk includes:
a. Only food prices
b. Nature of risk and food involved
c. Tax structure
d. Import duties
121. Public communication also includes:
a. Only advertisements
b. Measures taken or to be taken to control risk
c. Salary details
d. Trade secrets only
122. If food fails safety requirements in a batch, it is presumed that:
a. Only part is unsafe
b. Entire batch fails unless proven otherwise
c. Only imported part fails
d. No presumption applies
123. The presumption applies to:
a. Only single items
b. Batch, lot or consignment
c. Only retail units
d. Only exported goods
124. While framing regulations, Food Authority considers:
a. Only profits
b. Prevalent practices and conditions in the country
c. Only foreign laws
d. Only court judgments
125. Prevalent practices include:
a. Banking procedures
b. Agricultural practices and handling, storage, transport
c. Tax rules
d. Police procedures
126. International standards are considered:
a. Always ignored
b. Where they exist or are being formulated
c. Only for exports
d. Only for imports
127. International standards may be ignored if:
a. Industry requests
b. Scientific justification or inappropriateness exists
c. Courts demand
d. Farmers object
128. Standards may differ from international ones if:
a. It increases trade only
b. Different level of protection is required nationally
c. It reduces safety always
d. No reason is needed
129. Public warning about food risk is based on:
a. Rumours
b. Reasonable grounds of suspicion
c. Advertising campaigns
d. Export data
130. Authorities must identify food involved in risk:
a. Minimally possible
b. To the fullest extent possible
c. Not at all
d. Only if exported
131. The Act ensures safety measures are:
a. Arbitrary
b. Based on scientific and practical justification
c. Only trade-driven
d. Ignored in emergencies
132. Food standards under the Act are generally determined on the basis of:
a. Political decisions
b. Risk analysis
c. Market demand
d. Export trends only
133. Risk analysis may be skipped when:
a. Industry requests
b. It is not appropriate to the circumstances or nature of the case
c. Prices are high
d. Courts demand it
134. Risk assessment is based on:
a. Market surveys
b. Available scientific evidence
c. Consumer complaints only
d. Media reports
135. Risk assessment must be:
a. Biased
b. Independent, objective and transparent
c. Secret
d. Industry-controlled
136. Public consultation in regulation making is:
a. Optional always
b. Open and transparent in normal cases
c. Not required
d. Restricted to government only
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-3