Download Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act Set- 2 MCQs (English Medium) PDF

 

 

1. Under clause (a), which factor does NOT invalidate a detention order?

a. Person residing abroad

b. Person outside jurisdictional limits of issuing officer

c. Person not served notice

d. Person refusing arrest

 

2. Under clause (b), a detention order shall not be invalid merely because:

a. The detainee is ill

b. The detention order is oral

c. The place of detention is outside the officer’s jurisdictional limits

d. The detainee files appeal

 

3. Section 11 protects detention orders from invalidity relating to:

a. Procedural delay

b. Territorial jurisdiction issues

c. Lack of evidence

d. Absence of witnesses

 

4. Which of the following combinations is correct under Section 11?

a. Order invalid if detainee is outside jurisdiction

b. Order invalid if detention place is outside jurisdiction

c. Order invalid if both occur

d. Order not invalid merely due to either circumstance

 

5. Section 12 deals with powers relating to:

a. Released detainees

b. Absconding persons against whom detention orders exist

c. Witness protection

d. Bail applicants

 

6. The powers under Section 12 may be exercised when the authority has reason to believe that the person:

a. Has filed an appeal

b. Is innocent

c. Has absconded or is concealing himself

d. Has surrendered

 

7. Who may exercise powers under Section 12?

a. Any police officer

b. Only a Magistrate

c. Government or officer specified in Section 8(2)

d. Jail Superintendent

 

8. Under clause (a), a written report may be made to:

a. Sessions Judge

b. Magistrate of the First Class having jurisdiction

c. Chief Secretary

d. Superintendent of Police

 

9. The Magistrate to whom report is made must have jurisdiction over the place where the person:

a. Was arrested earlier

b. Was last seen

c. Ordinarily resides

d. Owns property

 

10. After such report, which provisions apply as if the detention order were a warrant issued by the Magistrate?

a. Sections 80–82 of the Code

b. Sections 83–85 of the Code

c. Sections 87, 88 and 89 of the Code

d. Sections 90–92 of the Code

 

11. Under clause (b), the authority may direct the person to:

a. Deposit security

b. Appear before a specified officer at a specified place within specified time

c. Surrender passport

d. File written explanation only

 

12. Such direction to appear must be issued by:

a. Oral instruction

b. Police notice

c. Judicial summons

d. Notified order

 

13. Failure to comply with the direction is punishable unless the person proves:

a. He was unaware of law

b. He lacked money

c. It was impossible to comply and he informed the officer with reasons and whereabouts within time

d. He intended to comply later

 

14. Maximum punishment for failure to comply with such direction is:

a. Three months imprisonment

b. Six months imprisonment

c. One year imprisonment

d. Two years imprisonment

 

15. Besides imprisonment, the person may also be punished with:

a. Community service only

b. Fine or both fine and imprisonment

c. Cancellation of citizenship

d. Property confiscation only

 

16. Section 13 primarily relates to:

a. Execution of detention orders

b. Disclosure of grounds of detention to the detained person

c. Review of detention by court

d. Punishment for detention

 

17. The authority making a detention order must communicate grounds to the detainee:

a. Only if demanded

b. Within 24 hours

c. As soon as may be

d. After court approval

 

18. Ordinarily, grounds of detention must be communicated within:

a. Three days

b. Five days from date of detention

c. Seven days

d. Ten days

 

19. In exceptional circumstances, the maximum permissible period for communicating grounds is:

a. Seven days

b. Fifteen days

c. Ten days from detention

d. Thirty days

 

20. Extension beyond five days is allowed only if:

a. Police approves

b. Reasons are recorded in writing

c. Detainee consents

d. Court orders

 

21. Grounds must be communicated in:

a. English only

b. Official language of the Union Territory

c. Any language chosen by authority

d. A language understandable to the detainee

 

22. Along with communication of grounds, the detainee must be afforded opportunity to:

a. Apply for bail

b. File civil suit

c. Make representation to Government

d. Seek media interview

 

23. The opportunity to make representation must be provided:

a. Within one month

b. After approval of Advisory Board

c. Only on request

d. At the earliest opportunity

 

24. Under sub-section (2), the authority may refuse to disclose facts if disclosure is considered:

a. Administratively inconvenient

b. Against public interest

c. Politically sensitive

d. Confidential by police

 

25. Which statement correctly reflects Section 13?

a. All facts must always be disclosed

b. Grounds may be withheld if detainee requests

c. Certain facts may be withheld in public interest

d. Grounds need not be communicated

 

26. Section 14 primarily provides for:

a. Detention procedure

b. Constitution of Advisory Board

c. Execution of warrants

d. Judicial review

 

27. The Government shall constitute an Advisory Board:

a. Once every year

b. Only on court direction

c. Whenever necessary

d. After legislative approval

 

28. The Advisory Board must consist of:

a. One member only

b. Chairman only

c. Chairman and one member

d. Chairman and two other members

 

29. The Chairman of the Advisory Board must be a person who:

a. Is a District Magistrate

b. Is or has been a Judge of the High Court

c. Is a Sessions Judge only

d. Is a law officer of Government

 

30. The other two members of the Board must be persons who:

a. Are police officers

b. Are practicing advocates only

c. Are, have been, or are qualified to be appointed as High Court Judges

d. Are legislators

 

31. The Chairman and members of the Board are appointed by:

a. High Court

b. Governor personally

c. Government on recommendations of Search-cum-Selection Committee

d. Parliament

 

32. Who acts as Chairman of the Search-cum-Selection Committee?

a. Chief Justice of High Court

b. Chief Secretary

c. Home Secretary

d. Law Minister

 

33. Which of the following is a member of the Search-cum-Selection Committee?

a. Director General of Police

b. Advocate General

c. Additional Secretary, Home Department

d. Registrar of High Court

 

34. Appointment of a sitting High Court Judge as Chairman or Member requires consultation with:

a. Prime Minister

b. Chief Secretary

c. Governor

d. Chief Justice of the High Court

 

35. Appointment of a sitting District and Sessions Judge as Board member requires consultation with:

a. Chief Justice of High Court

b. Law Minister

c. Speaker of Assembly

d. Attorney General

 

36. The term of office of Chairman and members of the Advisory Board is:

a. One year

b. Two years

c. Three years

d. Five years

 

37. The term of three years may be extended by:

a. One year

b. Two years

c. Three years

d. Five years

 

38. Section 15 deals with:

a. Execution of detention orders

b. Reference to Advisory Board

c. Revocation of detention

d. Appeals against detention

 

39. In every case where a detention order is made, the Government must place materials before the Advisory Board:

a. Within two weeks

b. Within three weeks

c. Within four weeks from date of detention

d. Within two months

 

40. The four-week period is calculated from:

a. Date of order

b. Date of arrest

c. Date of approval

d. Date of detention under the order

 

41. The Advisory Board referred to in Section 15 must be constituted under:

a. Section 10

b. Section 12

c. Section 13

d. Section 14

 

42. Which of the following must be placed before the Advisory Board?

a. Only detention order

b. Grounds of order

c. Grounds, representation (if any), and officer’s report where applicable

d. Only police diary

 

43. The representation to be placed before the Board is the one made by:

a. Police officer

b. Detaining authority

c. Government advocate

d. Person affected by the order

 

44. The officer’s report must also be placed before the Advisory Board when:

a. Order is confirmed by court

b. Order is made by Government

c. Order is made by an officer

d. Representation is rejected

 

45. The officer’s report referred to in Section 15 is the report submitted under:

a. Section 7(2)

b. Section 8(4)

c. Section 9(1)

d. Section 10(2)

 

46. Failure of the Government to place required materials before the Advisory Board within prescribed time would violate:

a. Section 11

b. Section 14

c. Section 15

d. Section 16

 

47. Section 16 primarily relates to:

a. Constitution of Advisory Board

b. Procedure of Advisory Board

c. Powers of Government

d. Execution of detention

 

48. The Advisory Board must consider:

a. Only police records

b. Only detainee representation

c. Material placed before it

d. Only court orders

 

49. The Advisory Board may call for further information from:

a. Only the detainee

b. Only the Government

c. Government or person concerned through Government or the person concerned

d. Police only

 

50. The Board may call for further information when:

a. Directed by High Court

b. It deems necessary

c. Requested by police

d. Ordered by Magistrate

 

51. Personal hearing of the person concerned shall be given:

a. In every case

b. Only if Government permits

c. Only if Board orders in writing

d. If Board considers it essential or if the person desires

 

52. The Advisory Board must submit its report to:

a. High Court

b. Government

c. District Magistrate

d. Parliament

 

53. The report must be submitted within what period from date of detention?

a. Four weeks

b. Five weeks

c. Six weeks

d. Eight weeks

 

54. The six-week period is counted from:

a. Date of detention

b. Date of reference

c. Date of arrest

d. Date of hearing

 

55. Under Section 16(2), the Advisory Board may determine whether undisclosed facts are against public interest:

a. Only after submitting its report

b. Only if directed by court

c. At any time before submitting its report if demanded by the detainee

d. Only after Government approval

 

56. Before making such determination regarding disclosure, the Board must give opportunity of hearing to:

a. Only Government

b. Only detainee

c. Only officer who made order

d. Detainee and Government or officer concerned

 

57. The finding of the Advisory Board regarding disclosure of facts is:

a. Advisory only

b. Subject to court approval

c. Binding on Government

d. Binding only on police

 

58. Under sub-section (3), the report of the Advisory Board must specify:

a. Duration of detention

b. Punishment for detainee

c. Opinion whether sufficient cause for detention exists

d. Grounds of detention

 

59. The opinion regarding sufficient cause must be stated:

a. Orally

b. In a separate part of the report

c. In annexure only

d. In confidential note only

 

60. Where members of the Advisory Board differ in opinion, the opinion of the Board shall be:

a. Chairman’s opinion

b. Government’s opinion

c. Majority opinion of members

d. Opinion of senior member

 

61. A detainee has the right to appear before the Advisory Board through:

a. Any relative

b. Police officer

c. Legal practitioner

d. None

 

62. Which part of the Advisory Board report is not confidential?

a. Entire report

b. Grounds portion

c. Opinion portion specifying sufficiency of cause

d. Annexures only

 

63. Proceedings of the Advisory Board are:

a. Public proceedings

b. Confidential

c. Open to media

d. Open to relatives

 

64. Section 17 deals with:

a. Constitution of Board

b. Action upon report of Advisory Board

c. Execution of detention

d. Grounds of detention

 

65. When the Advisory Board reports sufficient cause for detention, the Government may:

a. Must release the person

b. Refer matter to court

c. Confirm detention order and continue detention

d. Cancel detention automatically

 

66. If sufficient cause is found, detention may be continued:

a. Only for six months

b. For such period as Government thinks fit

c. Only for one year

d. Only for period fixed by Board

 

67. When the Advisory Board reports no sufficient cause for detention, the Government shall:

a. Modify detention

b. Suspend detention

c. Refer matter to police

d. Revoke detention order

 

68. Upon such report of no sufficient cause, the person must be released:

a. Within seven days

b. Within fifteen days

c. Forthwith

d. After approval of court

 

69. Under Section 17, which authority takes action after receiving Advisory Board’s report?

a. High Court

b. Magistrate

c. Government

d. Police

 

70. The Government’s power to confirm detention arises only when:

a. Police recommends

b. Advisory Board reports sufficient cause

c. Detainee refuses representation

d. Court stays release

 

71. Which statement correctly reflects Section 17?

a. Government must always follow Board’s advice to continue detention

b. Government has no power after report

c. Government must release person if Board finds no sufficient cause

d. Government may ignore Board opinion

 

72. Section 18 primarily deals with:

a. Advisory Board powers

b. Maximum period of detention

c. Grounds of detention

d. Execution of detention

 

73. Section 18 applies to detention orders that have been:

a. Issued orally

b. Stayed by court

c. Confirmed under Section 17

d. Approved by police

 

74. In cases prejudicial to maintenance of public order, the initial maximum detention period is:

a. One month

b. Three months

c. Six months

d. Twelve months

 

75. The detention for public order cases may be extended up to:

a. Six months

b. Nine months

c. Twelve months

d. Two years

 

76. For persons indulging in smuggling of timber, the maximum detention period is:

a. Three months

b. Six months

c. Twelve months

d. Two years

 

77. In cases prejudicial to security of the Union Territory, the initial detention period may extend up to:

a. Three months

b. Six months

c. Nine months

d. Twelve months

 

78. The maximum detention period in security-related cases may extend up to:

a. One year

b. Eighteen months

c. Two years

d. Three years

 

79. The detention period in all cases is calculated from:

a. Date of order

b. Date of confirmation

c. Date of arrest

d. Date of detention

 

80. Section 18 does NOT affect the Government’s power to:

a. Transfer detainee

b. Revoke or modify detention earlier

c. Grant bail

d. Transfer case to court

 

81. The Government may extend detention of a foreigner beyond limits if:

a. Advisory Board approves

b. Police requests

c. Expulsion has not been possible

d. Court delays case

 

82. Which statement is correct regarding Section 18?

a. Detention must always last full maximum period

b. Government cannot revoke detention early

c. Maximum period applies only after confirmation

d. Maximum period applies from date of order

 

83. Section 19 deals with:

a. Confirmation of detention

b. Revocation of detention orders

c. Execution of warrants

d. Advisory Board procedure

 

84. A detention order may be revoked or modified by:

a. Only the issuing officer

b. Only the Advisory Board

c. Government at any time

d. High Court only

 

85. The Government’s power to revoke or modify exists:

a. Only before confirmation

b. Only within 30 days

c. Even if order was made by an officer under Section 8(2)

d. Only after Board review

 

86. Section 19(1) operates without prejudice to provisions of:

a. Criminal Procedure Code Section 144

b. General Clauses Act Section 21

c. Evidence Act Section 3

d. IPC Section 107

 

87. A fresh detention order on the same facts is permissible when the earlier order:

a. Was challenged

b. Was disliked

c. Was illegal due to technical defect

d. Was more than one year old

 

88. A fresh detention order may also be made when earlier order was revoked due to:

a. Lack of evidence

b. Political pressure

c. Apprehension that it was technically illegal

d. Expiry of limitation

 

89. Which statement is correct regarding fresh detention orders?

a. They are never allowed on same facts

b. They require court approval

c. They are allowed only for new facts

d. They may be allowed on same facts in specified cases

 

90. While computing maximum detention period under a fresh order, the period spent under earlier detention:

a. Is included

b. Is doubled

c. Is excluded

d. Is ignored only by court order

 

91. The proviso to Section 19 relates to:

a. Advisory Board review

b. Computation of detention period under fresh order

c. Grounds of detention

d. Execution procedure

 

92. Who has the power to order temporary release of a detained person?

a. Court

b. Government

c. Police Officer

d. Advisory Board

 

93. A detained person may be released temporarily:

a. Only without conditions

b. Only with conditions

c. Either without conditions or with conditions

d. Only with court approval

 

94. The Government may cancel temporary release:

a. Only after court order

b. At any time

c. After one month only

d. Never

 

95. The Government may require the released person to:

a. Pay tax

b. Enter into a bond

c. Leave the country

d. Report to media

 

96. A bond required under Section 20 may be:

a. Only without sureties

b. Only with sureties

c. With or without sureties

d. Only with court permission

 

97. A temporarily released person must surrender:

a. Whenever he wants

b. Only if police call

c. At specified time, place, and authority

d. After one year

 

98. Failure to surrender without sufficient cause may lead to imprisonment up to:

a. 6 months

b. 1 year

c. 2 years

d. 5 years

 

99. Failure to comply with release conditions results in:

a. Immediate acquittal

b. Bond forfeiture

c. Deportation only

d. No consequence

 

100. When a bond is forfeited, persons bound by it become liable for:

a. Imprisonment only

b. Penalty specified in bond

c. Community service

d. Warning only

 

101. The period of temporary release:

a. Counts toward detention period

b. Counts only if court orders

c. Does not count toward detention period

d. Counts half

 

102. Temporary release can be granted for:

a. Indefinite time only

b. Any specified period

c. Only 7 days

d. Only 30 days

 

103. Conditions imposed during temporary release must be:

a. Oral only

b. Approved by Parliament

c. Accepted by the person released

d. Approved by police station

 

104. Which authority specifies surrender details after release?

a. Court clerk

b. Government order

c. Jail superintendent alone

d. Local panchayat

 

105. Section 20 primarily deals with:

a. Arrest procedure

b. Bail

c. Temporary release of detainees

d. Trial procedure

 

106. The Government’s power to cancel release is:

a. Conditional on court approval

b. Absolute and exercisable anytime

c. Limited to 24 hours

d. Only during emergency

 

107. No court shall take cognizance of an offence under this Act except on:

a. Oral complaint of victim

b. FIR registered by police

c. Report in writing by a public servant

d. Order of Advisory Board

 

108. The report required for cognizance under Section 21 must be made by:

a. Any private individual

b. Advocate

c. Public servant

d. Detenu himself

 

109. Cognizance of offences under this Act can be taken by a court:

a. Suo motu

b. On police FIR alone

c. Only on written report of public servant

d. On complaint by relatives

 

110. Sub-section (1) of Section 21 restricts cognizance by:

a. Police officers

b. Government

c. Courts

d. Advisory Board

 

111. Offences under this Act are declared to be:

a. Non-cognizable and bailable

b. Cognizable and bailable

c. Cognizable and non-bailable

d. Non-cognizable and non-bailable

 

112. The nature of offences under this Act applies:

a. Subject to court discretion

b. Subject to the Second Schedule of the Code

c. Notwithstanding the Second Schedule of the Code

d. Only if Government approves

 

113. Being cognizable means that:

a. Police need court warrant to arrest

b. Police can arrest without warrant

c. Court must try summarily

d. Bail is compulsory

 

114. Being non-bailable means that:

a. Bail is a matter of right

b. Bail cannot be granted at all

c. Bail is discretionary

d. Bail is automatic

 

115. Which provision overrides the Second Schedule of the Code?

a. Section 20

b. Section 21(1)

c. Section 21(2)

d. Section 22

 

116. The object of Section 21 is primarily to:

a. Protect detainees

b. Limit judicial power

c. Regulate initiation of prosecution

d. Abolish police powers

 

117. Section 22 provides protection to persons for actions done:

a. Negligently

b. Maliciously

c. In good faith under the Act

d. Under personal orders

 

118. The protection under Section 22 applies against:

a. Only civil suits

b. Only criminal cases

c. Only departmental actions

d. Suits, prosecutions, or other legal proceedings

 

119. “Good faith” generally implies action taken:

a. With negligence

b. Honestly and without malice

c. With delay

d. Without authority

 

120. If an act is done maliciously, Section 22 protection will:

a. Always apply

b. Never apply

c. Apply only with permission

d. Apply only to police officers

 

121. Protection is granted for acts:

a. Done outside the Act

b. Done under personal motives

c. Done in pursuance of provisions of the Act

d. Done before enactment

 

122. Section 22 protects:

a. Only government officers

b. Any person acting under the Act in good faith

c. Only ministers

d. Only courts

 

123. The main objective of Section 22 is to:

a. Punish officials

b. Encourage lawful action without fear of litigation

c. Prevent arrests

d. Remove judicial review

 

124. Which of the following is not required for protection under Section 22?

a. Good faith

b. Action under Act provisions

c. Court permission

d. Honest intention

 

125. Section 22 bars legal proceedings when action is:

a. Illegal but harmless

b. Done with bad intention

c. Done honestly under authority of the Act

d. Done secretly

 

126. Protection under Section 22 applies even to acts:

a. Intended to be done in good faith

b. Done negligently

c. Done recklessly

d. Done for profit

 

127. Under Section 23, the power to make rules is vested in:

a. Courts

b. Legislature

c. Government

d. Advisory Board

 

128. Rules made under Section 23 must be:

a. Independent of the Act

b. Consistent with the provisions of the Act

c. Approved by courts

d. Temporary only

 

129. Rules under Section 23 are made through:

a. Ordinance

b. Resolution

c. Notification

d. Circular

 

130. The primary purpose of rule-making power under Section 23 is to:

a. Amend the Act

b. Repeal provisions

c. Carry out the objects of the Act

d. Punish offenders

 

131. If a rule contradicts the Act, it will be:

a. Automatically valid

b. Binding on courts

c. Invalid to the extent of inconsistency

d. Enforceable for five years

 

132. Section 23 grants rule-making power as long as rules are:

a. Politically approved

b. Financially beneficial

c. Necessary for implementing the Act

d. Supported by police

 

133. Which authority issues notification for rules under Section 23?

a. District Court

b. Government

c. Advisory Board

d. Parliament only

 

134. The rule-making power under Section 23 is an example of:

a. Judicial power

b. Legislative delegation

c. Executive privilege only

d. Police authority

 

135. Rules made under Section 23 must aim to:

a. Expand punishment beyond Act

b. Restrict rights arbitrarily

c. Implement provisions of the Act

d. Replace the Act

 

136. Section 23 allows rules to be framed when they are:

a. Convenient

b. Politically motivated

c. Necessary for carrying out the Act’s objects

d. Approved by detainees

 

137. Section 24 provides for:

a. Amendment and validation

b. Repeal and saving

c. Review and appeal

d. Detention and release

 

138. Which law is repealed under Section 24(1)?

a. Public Security Act, 1975

b. Preventive Detention Act, 1950

c. Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Ordinance, 1977

d. Criminal Procedure Ordinance, 1973

 

139. The repeal mentioned in Section 24 applies to:

a. Rules only

b. Orders only

c. The entire Ordinance

d. Advisory Board decisions

 

140. Under Section 24(2), actions taken under the repealed Ordinance shall:

a. Become void automatically

b. Continue if consistent with this Act

c. Require court approval

d. Expire after six months

 

141. The term “saving” in Section 24 refers to:

a. Financial savings

b. Preservation of prior valid actions

c. Reduction of penalties

d. Suspension of detention

 

142. Which of the following is protected after repeal under Section 24(2)?

a. Only notifications

b. Only punishments

c. Any action taken under the Ordinance

d. Only court orders

 

143. Actions under the repealed Ordinance are treated as valid if they are:

a. Approved by police

b. Not challenged in court

c. Consistent with this Act

d. Less than five years old

 

144. Section 24 ensures legal continuity through:

a. Retrospective punishment

b. Judicial review

c. Saving clause

d. Detention extension

 

145. If an earlier rule under the Ordinance conflicts with this Act, it will:

a. Continue fully

b. Be enforced for one year

c. Be invalid to the extent of inconsistency

d. Override the Act

 

146. Section 24 prevents legal gaps by:

a. Suspending earlier proceedings

b. Preserving valid past actions

c. Cancelling all orders

d. Requiring fresh detention orders

 

 

 

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