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1. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992 was enacted to:
a. Regulate public service recruitment
b. Prevent the leakage of question papers and use of unfair means at public examinations and provide for matters connected therewith and incidental thereto
c. Conduct public examinations through a statutory board
d. Establish examination tribunals
2. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992 is:
a. Act No. 17 of 1992
b. Act No. 72 of 1992
c. Act No. 27 of 1992
d. Act No. 92 of 1992
3. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992 was enacted by:
a. Parliament
b. Governor of Rajasthan
c. Rajasthan Public Service Commission
d. Rajasthan State Legislature
4. The Act was enacted in the:
a. Forty-third year of the Republic of India
b. Forty-second year of the Republic of India
c. Forty-fourth year of the Republic of India
d. Forty-fifth year of the Republic of India
5. The long title of the Act indicates that it is intended to prevent:
a. Maladministration in educational institutions only
b. Delay in declaration of examination results
c. Leakage of question papers and use of unfair means at public examinations
d. Unauthorised establishment of coaching institutions
6. Section 1 of the Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992 deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Penalties
c. Short title, extent and commencement
d. Cognizance of offences
7. This Act may be called:
a. Rajasthan Examination Act, 1992
b. Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992
c. Rajasthan Public Examination Act, 1992
d. Rajasthan Prevention of Unfair Means Act, 1992
8. The short title of the Act is provided under:
a. Section 1(1)
b. Section 1(2)
c. Section 1(3)
d. Preamble
9. The Act extends to:
a. The whole of India
b. Such areas as may be notified by the State Government
c. The whole of the State of Rajasthan
d. All public examinations conducted in India
10. The extent of the Act is provided under:
a. Section 1(1)
b. Section 1(2)
c. Section 1(3)
d. Section 2
11. As per Section 1(3), the Act shall come into force:
a. On such date as the State Government may notify
b. After publication in the Official Gazette
c. On the first day of the next month
d. At once
12. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The Act extends only to public examinations conducted by the State Government
b. The Act extends to selected districts of Rajasthan
c. The Act shall come into force at once
d. The Act comes into force on a date appointed by notification
13. Under Section 1, the Act contains provisions relating to:
a. Definitions, penalties and appeals
b. Short title, extent and commencement
c. Offences and punishments
d. Rule-making powers
14. Section 2 of the Act deals with:
a. Offences and penalties
b. Definitions
c. Examination centres
d. Public examinations
15. "Examination centre" means:
a. Only the examination hall
b. Any place fixed for holding public examination
c. Any educational institution
d. Any place notified by the State Government
16. The term "examination centre" includes:
a. Only rooms where candidates are seated
b. The building in which examination is conducted
c. The entire premises attached thereto
d. Only the premises owned by the Government
17. Any place fixed for holding public examination and including the entire premises attached thereto is called:
a. Public institution
b. Examination venue
c. Public premises
d. Examination centre
18. "Public examination" means:
a. Any examination conducted by a university
b. Any competitive examination
c. Any examination notified by the State Government
d. Any of the examination specified in the Schedule
19. The definition of "public examination" under Section 2 refers to:
a. The Schedule
b. Rules made under the Act
c. Notification issued by the State Government
d. The Indian Penal Code, 1860
20. The expression "unfair" in relation to an examination means:
a. Use of force within the examination centre
b. Unauthorised help while answering question in a public examination
c. Absence from the examination
d. Delay in submission of answer book
21. Unauthorised help from any person while answering question in a public examination constitutes:
a. Misconduct
b. Negligence
c. Unfair means
d. Criminal breach of trust
22. Which of the following is specifically included within the meaning of "unfair"?
a. Authorised reference material supplied by the examiner
b. Discussion after the examination
c. Reading the question paper twice
d. Unauthorised help from any material written, recorded or printed
23. The expression "unfair" includes unauthorised help from any material:
a. Written, recorded or printed in any form whatsoever
b. Published by the Government only
c. Printed in books only
d. Prescribed by rules only
24. Use of which of the following is covered within the definition of "unfair"?
a. Authorised calculator
b. Invigilator's instructions
c. Any unauthorised telephonic, wireless, electronic or other instrument or gadget
d. Examination stationery
25. The use of any unauthorised telephonic, wireless, electronic or other instrument or gadget is:
a. Expressly excluded from the Act
b. Permitted with prior approval
c. Included within the meaning of "unfair"
d. Punishable only if used outside the examination centre
26. Under clause (d), words and expressions used in the Act but not defined therein shall have the meanings assigned in:
a. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. The Constitution of India
c. The Rajasthan General Clauses Act
d. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
27. Clause (d) applies to words and expressions:
a. Defined in the Schedule
b. Not defined in the Act but defined in the BNS
c. Defined in any law for the time being in force
d. Used only in penal provisions
28. The meanings of undefined words and expressions are to be assigned:
a. Respectively as assigned in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
b. As interpreted by the courts from time to time
c. As notified by the State Government
d. As prescribed by rules
29. Section 3 of the Act deals with:
a. Unauthorised possession or disclosure of question paper
b. Prohibition of use of unfair means
c. Punishment for offences
d. Search and seizure
30. Under Section 3, no person shall:
a. Enter an examination centre without permission
b. Possess any written material
c. Use unfair means at any public examination
d. Communicate with another examinee
31. The prohibition under Section 3 applies:
a. Only to examinees
b. Only to candidates appearing in competitive examinations
c. Only to persons present in the examination hall
d. To any person
32. The use of unfair means is prohibited:
a. At any public examination
b. At any educational institution
c. At any examination centre only
d. At any competitive examination notified by the Government
33. Which of the following correctly states the mandate of Section 3?
a. No candidate shall possess unauthorised material
b. No person shall use unfair means at any public examination
c. No person shall disclose question papers
d. No person shall enter an examination centre without authority
34. Section 4 of the Act deals with:
a. Prohibition of use of unfair means
b. Punishment for offences
c. Unauthorised possession or disclosure of question paper
d. Cognizance of offences
35. Section 4 applies to a person who is:
a. Lawfully authorised or permitted by virtue of his duties
b. Not lawfully authorised or permitted by virtue of his duties
c. An examinee only
d. An invigilator only
36. The prohibition under Section 4 operates before:
a. Commencement of the examination
b. Publication of results
c. The time fixed for distribution of question papers to examinees at a public examination
d. Entry of candidates into the examination centre
37. Under Section 4(a), a person not lawfully authorised shall not:
a. Procure or attempt to procure or possess such question paper or any portion or copy thereof
b. Discuss examination topics with candidates
c. Enter an examination centre
d. Supervise a public examination
38. Which of the following acts is specifically prohibited under Section 4(a)?
a. Possession of answer books
b. Procurement, attempted procurement or possession of question paper or any portion or copy thereof
c. Publication of examination results
d. Preparation of model answers
39. Under Section 4(a), the prohibition extends to:
a. The entire question paper only
b. A certified copy of the question paper only
c. A question paper but not a portion thereof
d. A question paper or any portion or copy thereof
40. Mere attempt to procure a question paper before the prescribed time:
a. Is not covered by Section 4
b. Is covered only if the attempt succeeds
c. Is expressly covered by Section 4(a)
d. Is punishable only after commencement of examination
41. Under Section 4(b), no unauthorised person shall:
a. Impart or offer to impart information related to the question paper
b. Possess examination stationery
c. Conduct an examination
d. Evaluate answer scripts
42. The information referred to in Section 4(b) must be information which the person knows or has reason to believe:
a. Will be useful to examinees
b. Is confidential Government information
c. Is related to, or derived from, or has a bearing upon such question papers
d. Concerns examination administration
43. Which of the following expressions appears in Section 4(b)?
a. Knows or suspects
b. Knows or ought to know
c. Knows or has reason to believe
d. Knows or apprehends
44. Offering to impart information related to a question paper before the time fixed for distribution:
a. Is not covered unless information is actually imparted
b. Is expressly covered by Section 4(b)
c. Is covered only when consideration is received
d. Is covered only if the information is correct
45. Section 4 prohibits unauthorised possession or disclosure of question paper:
a. After declaration of results
b. After conclusion of examination
c. Before the time fixed for distribution of question papers to examinees at a public examination
d. Only during the examination
46. Section 5 of the Act deals with:
a. Penalty
b. Prevention of leakage by person entrusted with examination work
c. Unauthorised possession of question paper
d. Prohibition of use of unfair means
47. Section 5 applies to a person who:
a. Appears in a public examination
b. Is entrusted with any work pertaining to public examination
c. Is a member of the police force
d. Is a Government servant only
48. No person entrusted with any work pertaining to public examination shall divulge information:
a. Under any circumstances
b. Unless authorised by a court
c. Except where he is permitted by virtue of his duties so to do
d. Unless the examination is completed
49. The prohibition under Section 5 extends to divulging information:
a. Directly only
b. Indirectly only
c. Through written communication only
d. Directly or indirectly
50. A person entrusted with examination work shall not:
a. Make known to any other person any information which has come to his knowledge by virtue of the work being so entrusted to him
b. Enter an examination centre
c. Supervise candidates
d. Handle question papers
51. Which of the following expressions is specifically used in Section 5?
a. Reveal or publish
b. Divulge or cause to be divulged
c. Communicate or circulate
d. Leak or transmit
52. The information protected under Section 5 is information:
a. Obtained from any source whatsoever
b. Acquired after the examination
c. Which has come to the person's knowledge by virtue of the work being entrusted to him
d. Received from examinees
53. Under Section 5, making known to any other person any information or part thereof obtained through entrusted examination work is:
a. Permissible if done orally
b. Prohibited unless permitted by virtue of duties
c. Permissible after office hours
d. Prohibited only before commencement of examination
54. Section 6 of the Act deals with:
a. Search and seizure
b. Cognizance of offences
c. Penalty
d. Appeals
55. Under Section 6, penalty may be imposed upon a person who:
a. Contravenes only
b. Attempts to contravene only
c. Abets the contravention only
d. Contravenes, attempts to contravene or abets the contravention of the provisions specified therein
56. Contravention of Section 3 is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
57. Contravention of Section 3 is punishable with fine which may extend to:
a. One thousand rupees
b. Two thousand rupees
c. Five thousand rupees
d. Ten thousand rupees
58. For contravention of Section 3, the Court may award:
a. Imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment and fine compulsorily
d. Imprisonment or fine or both
59. Contravention of which provision attracts imprisonment which may extend to three years?
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 3
d. Section 4 and Section 5
60. Contravention of Section 4 or Section 5 is punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
61. The maximum term of imprisonment prescribed for contravention of Section 4 or Section 5 is:
a. Five years
b. Six years
c. Ten years
d. Seven years
62. Contravention of Section 4 or Section 5 shall be punishable with:
a. Imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment and fine
d. Community service and fine
63. The fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees is prescribed for contravention of:
a. Section 3 only
b. Section 4 or Section 5
c. Section 3 or Section 4
d. Section 5 only
64. Which of the following correctly distinguishes the punishments under Section 6?
a. Sections 3, 4 and 5 carry identical punishment
b. Section 3 carries a higher minimum sentence than Sections 4 and 5
c. Sections 4 and 5 prescribe a minimum imprisonment term, whereas Section 3 does not
d. Section 3 prescribes mandatory imprisonment
65. Abetment of contravention of Section 4 or Section 5:
a. Is not punishable under Section 6
b. Is punishable under Section 6
c. Is punishable only under the Indian Penal Code
d. Requires actual contravention to occur
66. Attempt to contravene Section 3:
a. Is not punishable
b. Is punishable only if unfair means are actually used
c. Is punishable under Section 6
d. Is punishable only with fine
67. Section 6A of the Act deals with:
a. Penalty for use of unfair means
b. Punishment for committing theft, extortion or robbery of question papers
c. Prevention of leakage by persons entrusted with examination work
d. Cognizance of offences
68. Under Section 6A, the offence relates to theft, extortion or robbery of:
a. Answer books
b. Examination records
c. Question papers of any public examination
d. Confidential Government documents
69. Section 6A applies where theft, extortion or robbery of question papers is committed:
a. After declaration of results
b. At any time before the examination in such question paper is over
c. Only before commencement of the examination
d. Only during distribution of question papers
70. Which of the following offences is specifically covered under Section 6A?
a. Criminal breach of trust of answer books
b. Cheating in examination
c. Theft, extortion or robbery of question papers
d. Destruction of examination records
71. Section 6A begins with which type of clause?
a. Saving clause
b. Explanation clause
c. Proviso
d. Non-obstante clause
72. The non-obstante clause in Section 6A overrides anything to the contrary contained in:
a. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
c. The Evidence Act, 1872
d. The Rajasthan General Clauses Act
73. A person convicted under Section 6A shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
74. The maximum imprisonment prescribed under Section 6A is:
a. Five years
b. Six years
c. Ten years
d. Seven years
75. The fine under Section 6A shall not be less than:
a. Ten thousand rupees
b. Fifteen thousand rupees
c. Twenty thousand rupees
d. Twenty-five thousand rupees
76. The maximum fine that may be imposed under Section 6A is:
a. Fifty thousand rupees
b. Seventy-five thousand rupees
c. One lac rupees
d. Two lac rupees
77. Which of the following correctly states the punishment under Section 6A?
a. Imprisonment up to seven years or fine up to one lac rupees
b. Imprisonment of not less than five years but which may extend to seven years and fine of not less than fifteen thousand rupees but which may extend to one lac rupees
c. Imprisonment up to five years and fine up to fifteen thousand rupees
d. Imprisonment of not less than three years and fine up to one lac rupees
78. Under Section 6A, both imprisonment and fine are:
a. Discretionary alternatives
b. Mandatory components of punishment
c. Applicable only in case of robbery
d. Applicable only in case of theft
79. Theft, extortion or robbery of question papers after the examination in such question paper is over:
a. Is expressly covered by Section 6A
b. Is covered only if committed by a public servant
c. Is not covered within the specific temporal condition prescribed in Section 6A
d. Attracts punishment under Section 6 only
80. Which of the following offences, if committed in respect of question papers of any public examination, attracts Section 6A?
a. Theft only
b. Extortion only
c. Robbery only
d. Theft, extortion or robbery
81. Section 7 of the Act deals with:
a. Power to amend Schedule
b. Penalty for offence with preparation to cause hurt
c. Penalty for committing robbery of question papers
d. Cognizance of offences
82. Section 7 applies where a person commits:
a. Any offence under the Indian Penal Code
b. An offence punishable under Section 6
c. An offence punishable under Section 6A only
d. Any offence under this Act
83. For attracting Section 7, the offence punishable under Section 6 must have been committed after making preparation for:
a. Causing death of any person
b. Destroying public property
c. Escaping from custody
d. Concealing evidence
84. Which of the following preparations is specifically mentioned in Section 7?
a. Preparation for criminal intimidation only
b. Preparation for causing death, hurt, assault, wrongful restraint, or putting any person in fear thereof
c. Preparation for theft of question papers
d. Preparation for destruction of examination records
85. Preparation for causing hurt to any person in connection with an offence punishable under Section 6:
a. Is immaterial
b. Attracts Section 7
c. Attracts Section 6A only
d. Is punishable only under the Indian Penal Code
86. Section 7 specifically mentions preparation for:
a. Wrongfully restraining any person
b. Wrongfully confining any person
c. Kidnapping any person
d. Abducting any person
87. Under Section 7, preparation for putting any person in fear of:
a. Death, hurt, assault or wrongful restraint
b. Defamation
c. Criminal breach of trust
d. Mischief
88. The maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 7 is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
89. A person punished under Section 7 shall also be liable to fine which may extend to:
a. Two thousand rupees
b. Five thousand rupees
c. Ten thousand rupees
d. Fifteen thousand rupees
90. Under Section 7, the offender:
a. Shall be punished with imprisonment only
b. Shall be punished with fine only
c. Shall be punished with imprisonment and shall also be liable to fine
d. Shall be punished with either imprisonment or fine
91. Which of the following is NOT specifically mentioned in Section 7?
a. Causing hurt to any person
b. Assaulting any person
c. Wrongfully restraining any person
d. Wrongfully confining any person
92. Section 8 of the Act deals with:
a. Power to make rules
b. Amendment of penalties
c. Power to amend Schedule
d. Removal of difficulties
93. Under Section 8, the power to amend the Schedule is vested in:
a. High Court
b. State Government
c. Governor
d. State Legislature
94. The State Government may amend the Schedule by:
a. Executive order
b. Circular
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Resolution of the Legislative Assembly
95. The State Government may include in the Schedule:
a. Any criminal offence
b. Any university examination
c. Any examination conducted by a private institution
d. Any other public examination
96. Before including any other public examination in the Schedule, the State Government must consider:
a. That such examination is conducted annually
b. That such examination is of State importance
c. That it is necessary to apply the provisions of this Act in respect of such examination
d. That such examination is conducted by a statutory authority
97. The inclusion of any other public examination in the Schedule takes effect upon:
a. Approval by the Legislature
b. Publication in the Official Gazette
c. Issue of a Government circular
d. Communication to examining authorities
98. Upon publication in the Official Gazette under Section 8:
a. The amendment requires legislative approval
b. The Schedule stands suspended
c. The amendment takes effect after thirty days
d. The Schedule shall be deemed to have been amended accordingly
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