Download Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act Set- 1 MCQs (English Medium) PDF

 

 

1. What is the nature and subject matter of the Act?

a. Definition clause

b. Penal provision

c. Preamble

d. Repealing provision

 

2. The statute is officially designated as:

a. Act No. IV of 1978

b. Act No. V of 1978

c. Act No. VI of 1978

d. Act No. VII of 1978

 

3. The assent to the Act and published in gazette was granted on:

a. 7 April 1978

b. 8 April 1978

c. 9 April 1978

d. 10 April 1978

 

4. The Preamble declares that the law was necessary in the interest of the security of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and:

a. Economic development

b. Public order

c. Electoral integrity

d. Judicial discipline

 

5. The legislation was enacted by which authority?

a. Parliament of India

b. President of India

c. Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature

d. Council of Ministers

 

6. The Act was enacted in which year of the Republic of India?

a. Twenty-seventh

b. Twenty-eighth

c. Twenty-ninth

d. Thirtieth

 

7. The words “Now, therefore, it is enacted…” are known in legislative drafting as the:

a. Proviso

b. Enacting formula

c. Illustration clause

d. Marginal note

 

8. What is the subject matter and heading of Section 1?

a. Definitions and interpretation

b. Short title and extent

c. Application and repeal

d. Commencement only

 

9. Section 1(1) provides that the Act may be called:

a. Jammu and Kashmir Safety Act, 1978

b. Public Safety Act, 1978

c. Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978

d. Kashmir Public Protection Act, 1978

 

10. The use of the words “may be called” in Section 1(1) indicates that the provision relates to:

a. Mandatory enforcement clause

b. Penal clause

c. Short title clause

d. Repeal clause

 

11. The year forming part of the short title is:

a. 1976

b. 1977

c. 1978

d. 1979

 

12. Section 1(2) states that the Act extends to:

a. Entire India

b. Specified districts only

c. Whole of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir

d. Areas notified by Government

 

13. What is the subject matter and heading of Section 2?

a. Short title

b. Definitions

c. Powers of detention

d. Rule-making power

 

14. The expression “unless there is anything repugnant in the subject or context” indicates that the definitions:

a. Apply absolutely in all situations

b. Apply only to criminal courts

c. Apply subject to contextual inconsistency

d. Apply retrospectively only

 

15. The qualifying phrase at the of Section 2 is legally classified as a:

a. Charging clause

b. Conditional interpretative clause

c. Penal clause

d. Saving clause

 

16. Under Section 2(1), the term “the Code” refers to:

a. Indian Penal Code, 1860

b. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974)

d. Evidence Act, 1872

 

17. Section 2(2) defines “notified” and “notification” with reference to publication in the:

a. Court bulletin

b. Government Gazette

c. Police register

d. Legislative debates

 

18. What is the subject matter and heading of Section 3?

a. Detention powers

b. Prohibited places

c. Preventive custody

d. Public order measures

 

19. Under Section 3(1), the Government may declare a place prohibited when it considers it necessary or expedient to:

a. Regulate traffic

b. Prevent trespass disputes

c. Prevent entry of unauthorised persons

d. Restrict trade activities

 

20. The authority empowered to declare any place as a prohibited place under Section 3(1) is the:

a. District Magistrate alone

b. Police Officer in charge

c. Government

d. Court of Session

 

21. The expression “necessary or expedient” in Section 3(1) indicates that the power of declaration is:

a. Ministerial and automatic

b. Judicially determined only

c. Discretionary administrative satisfaction

d. Dependent on public voting

 

22. A declaration of a prohibited place must be made by:

a. Oral announcement

b. Internal memo

c. Notified order

d. Police diary entry

 

23. The requirement of a “notified order” legally implies:

a. Secret decision is valid

b. Written but unpublished order suffices

c. Formal publication is required

d. Oral directions are enough

 

24. Section 3(1) applies to:

a. Only government buildings

b. Only military installations

c. Any place considered necessary by Government

d. Only notified districts

 

25. Under Section 3(2), which of the following acts is prohibited without permission?

a. Entering

b. Passing over

c. Loitering in vicinity

d. All of the above

 

26. The prohibition under Section 3(2) applies to:

a. Citizens only

b. Foreigners only

c. Any person

d. Government servants only

 

27. Permission to enter a prohibited place may be granted by:

a. Any police constable

b. Only a court

c. Government or specified authority

d. Local resident association

 

28. The phrase “authority specified by the Government” means:

a. Any authority acting independently

b. Authority expressly designated by Government

c. Any elected official

d. Only judiciary

 

29. Which of the following locations is also covered by the prohibition under Section 3(2)?

a. Only inside the place

b. Only boundary wall

c. Vicinity of the prohibited place

d. Only entrance gate

 

30. The inclusion of “pass over” in Section 3(2) legally covers:

a. Only walking

b. Only driving

c. Movement across the place by any mode

d. Only aerial movement

 

31. Section 3(3) becomes operative when:

a. A place is declared prohibited

b. A person is arrested

c. Permission is granted to a person under sub-section (2)

d. Government withdraws notification

 

32. A person granted permission under Section 3(2) must comply with:

a. Only written laws

b. Any order regulating his conduct issued by competent authority

c. Only police instructions

d. Only court orders

 

33. The authority competent to regulate conduct of a permitted person under Section 3(3) is:

a. Any citizen

b. Only military authority

c. Government or specified authority

d. Local Panchayat

 

34. Failure to comply with regulatory directions while acting under permission would amount to:

a. Lawful conduct

b. Automatic extension of permission

c. Breach of conditions of permission

d. Judicial immunity

 

35. Under sub-section (4), who may search a person in relation to a prohibited place?

a. Any citizen

b. Any Police Officer or any person authorised by the Government

c. Only Magistrate

d. Only military officer

 

36. A person may be searched under sub-section (4) when he is:

a. Only entering a prohibited place

b. Only leaving a prohibited place

c. Entering, seeking to enter, being on or in, or leaving a prohibited place

d. Only standing nearby

 

37. Under sub-section (4), which of the following may also be searched if brought by such person?

a. Vehicle only

b. Aircraft only

c. Article only

d. Vehicle, aircraft or article

 

38. The purpose for which a person or object may be detained under sub-section (4) is:

a. Arrest

b. Punishment

c. Search

d. Interrogation

 

39. Sub-section (4) permits detention of which of the following for search?

a. Person only

b. Vehicle only

c. Aircraft only

d. Person, vehicle, aircraft and article

 

40. According to the proviso to sub-section (4), a female shall be searched only by:

a. Any authorised person

b. Police officer

c. Female

d. Magistrate

 

41. Sub-section (5) applies when a person is in a prohibited place:

a. With permission

b. In contravention of this section

c. During emergency

d. By mistake only

 

42. Under sub-section (5), such person may be removed by:

a. Any police officer

b. Police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector or authorised person

c. Village officer

d. Any government servant

 

43. The phrase “without prejudice to any other proceedings” in sub-section (5) indicates that removal:

a. Prevents further proceedings

b. Replaces prosecution

c. Does not affect other proceedings

d. Cancels offence

 

44. Under sub-section (6), punishment applies when a person is in a prohibited place in contravention of:

a. Any rule

b. Any order

c. Any provision of this section

d. Any law

 

45. The maximum imprisonment prescribed in sub-section (6) is:

a. Seven days

b. Fifteen days

c. One month

d. Three months

 

46. The punishment under sub-section (6) may consist of:

a. Imprisonment only

b. Fine only

c. Both only

d. Imprisonment or fine or both

 

47. What is the subject matter and heading of Section 4?

a. Prohibited places

b. Protected areas

c. Detention orders

d. Search powers

 

48. Under sub-section (1), the Government may declare an area protected if it considers it necessary or expedient in the interests of:

a. Trade and commerce

b. Defence or security of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir

c. Public health

d. Tax collection

 

49. The declaration of a protected area under sub-section (1) must be made by:

a. Written order only

b. Oral announcement

c. Notified order

d. Police report

 

50. An area becomes a protected area for the purposes of this Act:

a. Immediately upon proposal

b. After court approval

c. When notified order is issued and while it remains in force

d. After publication in newspaper only

 

51. Under sub-section (2), entry into a protected area may be regulated by:

a. Any public servant

b. Government or authority specified by Government

c. District residents

d. Court registry

 

52. Sub-section (3) applies when a person is in a protected area:

a. With permission

b. In contravention of an order under this section

c. During daytime only

d. For official work

 

53. A person in a protected area in contravention may be removed by or under direction of:

a. Any police officer

b. Police officer not below rank of Sub-Inspector

c. Constable

d. Village officer

 

54. The phrase “without prejudice to any other proceedings” in sub-section (3) signifies that removal:

a. Cancels liability

b. Replaces punishment

c. Does not affect other legal proceedings

d. Prevents prosecution

 

55. Under sub-section (4), contravention of provisions of this section is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:

a. One month

b. Two months

c. Three months

d. Six months

 

56. The punishment prescribed under sub-section (4) may consist of:

a. Imprisonment only

b. Fine only

c. Both only

d. Imprisonment or fine or both

 

57. What is the subject matter and heading of Section 5?

a. Protected areas

b. Forcing or evading a guard

c. Search without warrant

d. Unlawful assembly

 

58. Section 5 applies to a person who effects or attempts to effect entry into:

a. Any public place

b. Government office only

c. A prohibited place or a protected area

d. Court premises only

 

59. The section requires that the person must have taken precautions to:

a. Obtain permission

b. Avoid punishment

c. Conceal his entry or attempted entry

d. Inform authorities

 

60. Concealment under Section 5 must be from:

a. Any citizen

b. Any police officer

c. Any person posted for protecting or controlling access

d. Magistrate only

 

61. The person from whom entry is concealed must be posted for the purpose of:

a. Collecting tax

b. Protecting, preventing, or controlling access

c. Recording attendance

d. Maintaining accounts

 

62. The maximum imprisonment prescribed under Section 5 is:

a. One month

b. Two months

c. Three months

d. Six months

 

63. The punishment under Section 5 may consist of:

a. Imprisonment only

b. Fine only

c. Both only

d. Imprisonment or fine or both

 

64. What is the subject matter and heading of Section 6?

a. Regulation of assemblies

b. Power to prohibit circulation or entry of certain documents

c. Preventive detention

d. Search powers

 

65. Under sub-section (1), the power to regulate or prohibit documents may be exercised by:

a. Any police officer

b. Government or authority authorised by it

c. Magistrate only

d. Legislature only

 

66. The authority must be satisfied that action is necessary for the purpose of preventing or combating activity prejudicial to:

a. Economic development

b. Communal, sectarian, or regional harmony affecting public order

c. Trade relations

d. Civil disputes

 

67. The order under Section 6(1) must be issued by:

a. Oral direction

b. Internal circular

c. Notified order

d. Court warrant

 

68. Section 6(1) empowers regulation or restriction of circulation within:

a. India

b. Any district

c. The Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir

d. Municipal limits only

 

69. Section 6(1) also permits prohibition or restriction of:

a. Publication only

b. Importation of documents into the Union territory

c. Printing only

d. Sale only

 

70. An order made under Section 6 shall not remain in force for more than:

a. One month

b. Three months

c. Six months

d. One year

 

71. Such an order may be extended before expiry:

a. Automatically

b. Only once

c. By Government order made in like manner

d. Only by court order

 

72. Each extension granted under the first proviso may be for a period not exceeding:

a. One month

b. Two months

c. Three months

d. Six months

 

73. The total period of the original order including extensions shall not exceed:

a. Six months

b. Nine months

c. One year

d. Two years

 

74. Extension of the order is subject to the condition that:

a. Legislature approves it

b. High Court does not otherwise direct

c. Police recommend it

d. Public notice is issued

 

75. A person aggrieved by such order may make a representation within:

a. 7 days

b. 10 days

c. 15 days

d. 30 days

 

76. The representation is to be made to:

a. High Court

b. District Magistrate

c. Government

d. Police authority

 

77. The Government must decide the representation within:

a. 10 days

b. 14 days

c. 21 days

d. 30 days

 

78. Before deciding the representation, the Government must provide the aggrieved party:

a. Legal aid

b. Opportunity of being heard

c. Written warning

d. Police escort

 

79. On considering the representation, the Government may:

a. Only confirm the order

b. Only rescind the order

c. Confirm, modify, or rescind the order

d. Refer it to Legislature

 

80. If the representation is rejected, the aggrieved person may apply to the High Court within:

a. One month from original order

b. Two months from rejection order

c. Three months from representation

d. Six months from notification

 

81. An application to set aside such order shall be heard by:

a. Single Judge

b. Division Bench of two Judges

c. Special Bench of three Judges

d. Full Court

 

82. The Bench hearing such application must be composed of:

a. Two Judges

b. Three Judges

c. Five Judges

d. Any number of Judges

 

83. What is the punishment for contravening an order made under this section?

a. Imprisonment up to 6 months only

b. Fine only

c. Imprisonment up to 3 months or fine or both

d. Imprisonment for life

 

84. Who may order the seizure of copies of a document in case of disobedience of an order under sub-section (1)?

a. Only the High Court

b. The Government or the authority issuing the order

c. Any police officer

d. District Magistrate only

 

85. Seizure of documents under sub-section (3) is:

a. A substitute for punishment

b. Independent of punishment liability

c. Allowed only after conviction

d. Allowed only with court permission

 

86. The seizure of copies may be ordered when:

a. A complaint is filed

b. An FIR is registered

c. There is disobedience of an order under sub-section (1)

d. A warning is issued

 

87. The term of imprisonment prescribed under sub-section (2) may extend up to:

a. One month

b. Three months

c. Six months

d. One year

 

88. Section 7 primarily serves the purpose of:

a. Granting new powers to the Government

b. Removing doubts regarding legality of restrictions

c. Defining offences

d. Prescribing punishments

 

89. The restrictions referred to in Section 7 relate to which provision?

a. Section 5

b. Section 8

c. Section 6

d. Section 4

 

90. Section 7 declares that restrictions imposed under Section 6 are:

a. Unconstitutional

b. Temporary

c. Reasonable restrictions

d. Judicial orders

 

91. The rights mentioned in Section 7 are those conferred by which constitutional provision?

a. Article 14(1)

b. Article 19(1)

c. Article 21

d. Article 32

 

92. Section 7 begins with which legislative phrase indicating clarification?

a. Notwithstanding anything contained

b. Provided that

c. For the removal of doubts

d. Subject to provisions

 

93. Under Section 8(1), the Government may order detention if it is satisfied that a person is acting prejudicially to:

a. Economic development

b. Security or public order

c. Judicial administration

d. Electoral process

 

94. Section 8(1)(a)(i) refers to prevention of acts prejudicial to the security of:

a. Any State

b. The Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir

c. The whole of India

d. Any protected area

 

95. The clause (ii) originally present under Section 8(1)(a) is:

a. Amended

b. Substituted

c. Omitted

d. Repealed entirely

 

96. Section 8(1)(a-1) relates to detention for preventing a person from engaging in:

a. Political activities

b. Civil disputes

c. Smuggling-related activities

d. Tax evasion

 

97. Which of the following is specifically mentioned as a ground for preventive detention under Section 8(1)(a-1)?

a. Smuggling of gold

b. Smuggling of timber or liquor

c. Smuggling of vehicles

d. Smuggling of currency

 

98. Under Section 8(1)(a-1)(iii), detention may be ordered for preventing a person from:

a. Manufacturing timber

b. Exporting liquor

c. Transporting or concealing smuggled timber

d. Purchasing forest land

 

99. Dealing in smuggled timber otherwise than transporting or concealing it is covered under:

a. Clause (i)

b. Clause (ii)

c. Clause (iv)

d. Clause (v)

 

100. Harbouring persons engaged in smuggling timber or liquor is mentioned in:

a. Section 8(1)(a)(i)

b. Section 8(1)(a-1)(v)

c. Section 8(2)

d. Proviso to Section 8

 

101. Under Section 8(1)(b), detention may be ordered if the person is:

a. A minor

b. A government servant

c. A foreigner within the meaning of the Foreigners Act

d. A citizen of India only

 

102. Section 8(1)(b)(ii) applies to a person residing in:

a. Any foreign country

b. A notified protected area

c. The area of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir under the occupation of Pakistan

d. Any border district

 

103. The purpose of detention under Section 8(1)(b) may include:

a. Conducting a criminal trial

b. Regulating continued presence or arranging expulsion

c. Collecting tax dues

d. Enforcing civil liability

 

104. Under Section 8(2), which of the following officers may exercise detention powers if satisfied as required?

a. Superintendent of Police

b. Divisional Commissioner

c. Tehsildar

d. Station House Officer

 

105. Which other authority is expressly empowered under Section 8(2) to exercise such powers?

a. Chief Secretary

b. District Magistrate

c. Sessions Judge

d. Inspector General of Police

 

106. The officers mentioned in Section 8(2) may exercise powers if satisfied as provided in sub-clauses of:

a. Section 7 only

b. Clause (a) or (a-1) of sub-section (1)

c. Clause (b) only

d. The proviso to Section 8

 

107. Preparations for using force fall under preventive detention grounds when they:

a. Cause property damage only

b. Disturb or are likely to disturb public order

c. Involve only private disputes

d. Are reported by police

 

108. Instigating or provoking use of force becomes relevant under this provision when it:

a. Leads to civil liability only

b. Is done anonymously

c. Disturbs or is likely to disturb public order

d. Involves political speech

 

109. Abetting an offence punishable with life imprisonment falls within the clause when it:

a. Is proved in court

b. Disturbs or is likely to disturb public order

c. Is reported in media

d. Involves conspiracy

 

110. “Smuggling” in relation to timber or liquor includes:

a. Only transporting illicit goods

b. Only selling illicit goods

c. Possessing or carrying illicit timber or liquor

d. Only exporting goods

 

111. Smuggling also includes acts rendering timber liable to confiscation under:

a. Motor Vehicles Act

b. Forest Act or Excise Act

c. Arms Act

d. Evidence Act

 

112. Under the definition clause, “timber” includes:

a. Firewood only

b. Bamboo and shrubs

c. Timber of Fir, Kail, Chir or Deodar trees

d. Any wooden article

 

113. Which of the following is excluded from “timber”?

a. Deodar logs

b. Kail wood pieces

c. Firewood

d. Chir timber

 

114. “Liquor” under the provision includes:

a. Only spirits

b. Only wine

c. Only country liquor

d. All alcoholic beverages including beer

 

115. For detention under clauses (a) and (a-1), “person” does not include:

a. Any citizen of India

b. Citizen below 18 years of age

c. Foreign national

d. Resident alien

 

116. A citizen aged 17 can be detained under clauses (a) and (a-1):

a. Yes, always

b. Yes, with court order

c. No, because minors are excluded

d. Only in national emergency

 

117. Under sub-section (4), who is required to report the making of a detention order to the Government?

a. Any Police Officer

b. Only the Home Secretary

c. An officer mentioned in sub-section (2)

d. The Advisory Board

 

118. The report to the Government must be made:

a. Within three days

b. Forthwith

c. Within one week

d. After approval

 

119. Which of the following must accompany the report sent to the Government?

a. Only the detention order copy

b. Grounds of order and relevant particulars

c. Only the detainee’s personal details

d. Recommendation of a Magistrate

 

120. The “other particulars” to be reported are those which:

a. Are prescribed by court rules

b. The detainee demands

c. The officer considers politically necessary

d. In the officer’s opinion have a bearing on the matter

 

121. An order made by such officer shall remain in force for more than twelve days only if:

a. The detainee consents

b. Police recommends extension

c. Government approves it in the meantime

d. Court grants interim relief

 

122. If Government approval is not obtained within twelve days, the order:

a. Automatically extends for another twelve days

b. Remains valid indefinitely

c. Converts into judicial custody

d. Does not remain in force after that period

 

123. The twelve-day period is calculated from:

a. Date of arrest

b. Date of Government review

c. Date of making the order

d. Date of communication to detainee

 

124. Section 9 deals with which subject matter?

a. Approval of detention orders

b. Execution of detention orders

c. Review of detention orders

d. Revocation of detention orders

 

125. A detention order may be executed:

a. Only within district limits

b. Only within the Union territory capital

c. At any place

d. Only where the order was issued

 

126. The manner of execution of a detention order shall be according to the procedure applicable to:

a. Civil decrees

b. Warrants of arrest under the Code

c. Summons cases

d. Preventive notices

 

127. The word “Code” in this section refers to procedure governing:

a. Civil trials

b. Revenue proceedings

c. Criminal procedure

d. Administrative tribunals

 

128. Section 9 provides that execution of detention orders must follow:

a. Special rules framed by police

b. Oral government directions

c. Executive instructions

d. The manner provided for execution of arrest warrants

 

129. Which limitation on place of execution is prescribed under Section 9?

a. Execution only within issuing district

b. Execution only within issuing State

c. Execution only at notified places

d. No territorial limitation

 

130. Section 10 primarily deals with:

a. Grounds of detention

b. Power to regulate place and conditions of detention

c. Duration of detention

d. Judicial review of detention

 

131. Section 10 applies to a person in respect of whom a detention order has been made under:

a. Section 6

b. Section 7

c. Section 8

d. Section 9

 

132. A detained person shall be liable to be detained in a place specified by:

a. The District Magistrate

b. The Advisory Board

c. The High Court

d. The Government

 

133. The Government may specify the place and conditions of detention by:

a. Judicial order only

b. General or special order

c. Oral directions

d. Police recommendation

 

134. Conditions that may be specified for detention may include conditions relating to:

a. Bail eligibility

b. Trial procedure

c. Maintenance of discipline

d. Appeal rights

 

135. Under clause (b), a detained person may be removed from one place of detention to another by order of:

a. Any Police Officer

b. The Court

c. The Government

d. The Jail Superintendent

 

136. Which of the following powers is expressly provided under Section 10?

a. Power to release detainee on parole

b. Power to transfer detainee between detention places

c. Power to sentence detainee

d. Power to cancel FIR

 

137. Section 10-A deals with which legal principle relating to detention orders?

a. Delegation of powers

b. Severability of grounds of detention

c. Appeal against detention

d. Compensation for detention

 

138. Section 10-A applies where a detention order under Section 8 is made on:

a. Only one ground

b. No recorded grounds

c. Two or more grounds

d. Judicial recommendation

 

139. When a detention order is based on multiple grounds, it shall be deemed to have been made:

a. Jointly on all grounds only

b. Separately on each ground

c. Only on the strongest ground

d. Only on valid grounds

 

140. A detention order shall NOT be deemed invalid merely because one or more grounds are:

a. Approved by court

b. Supported by witnesses

c. Mentioned orally

d. Vague

 

141. Which of the following is NOT listed as a defect that can still preserve validity of a detention order?

a. Ground is non-existent

b. Ground is irrelevant

c. Ground is administratively inconvenient

d. Ground is not proximately connected

 

142. Under clause (a), even if some grounds are invalid, the detention order remains valid if:

a. At least one ground survives scrutiny

b. Police certify it

c. Court modifies it

d. Detainee consents

 

143. Section 10-A provides that it is not necessary to prove that the authority would have been satisfied with reference to:

a. Any single remaining ground

b. All remaining grounds collectively

c. Only the first ground

d. Judicial findings

 

144. Under clause (b), the Government or officer making the detention order shall be deemed to have made it:

a. Without recording satisfaction

b. Arbitrarily

c. After being satisfied with respect to remaining ground or grounds

d. Only after court approval

 

145. The legal effect of Section 10-A is primarily to:

a. Expand punishment

b. Validate detention orders despite defective grounds

c. Provide bail rights

d. Limit detention period

 

146. Section 11 deals with which aspect of detention orders?

a. Approval of detention orders

b. Grounds of detention

c. Validity of detention orders on certain grounds

d. Duration of detention

 

147. A detention order shall not be invalid merely because the person to be detained is:

a. A minor

b. Outside the territorial jurisdiction of the officer making the order

c. A foreigner

d. Already in custody

 

 

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