Information Technology Act, 2000
1. The concept of secure electronic record is relevant for:
a. Cyber crimes
b. Electronic evidence
c. Digital payments only
d. Publication of rules
2. Section 14 operates:
a. Retrospectively
b. From date of verification
c. From date of Act
d. Prospectively from application of security procedure
3. Without verification, secure status of record:
a. Cannot begin
b. Continues
c. Automatically ends
d. Becomes invalid
4. In the context of the IT Act, what is the primary purpose of designating a record as a "secure electronic record"?
a. To ensure the record cannot be read by anyone else.
b. To provide a legal presumption of integrity and authenticity until the time of verification.
c. To exempt the record from being produced in a court of law.
d. To automatically convert the record into a physical document.
5. According to Section 15 of the IT Act 2000, an electronic signature is deemed secure if:
a. It is created by any person using an online platform.
b. The signature creation data was under the exclusive control of the signatory at the time of affixing the signature.
c. It is visible on a printed document.
d. It is shared among multiple users for convenience.
6. Which of the following is a requirement for an electronic signature to be considered secure under Section 15?
a. Signature creation data must be stored and affixed in a manner prescribed by law.
b. Signature creation data can be used by anyone trusted by the signatory.
c. Signature must be sent over email only.
d. Signature must be approved by a government authority before use.
7. In the context of a digital signature under Section 15, what does the term “signature creation data” refer to?
a. Public key of the subscriber
b. Private key of the subscriber
c. Hash of the signed document
d. Digital certificate issued by CA
8. Rahul uses his private key to digitally sign a contract. Later, his assistant temporarily accesses his computer without Rahul’s knowledge and affixes the same signature on another document. Is this signature secure under Section 15?
a. No, because the signature creation data was not under exclusive control of Rahul at the time of signing.
b. Yes, because Rahul created the original signature
c. Yes, since the assistant is trusted.
d. No, because digital signatures cannot be used twice.
9. Which scenario violates the requirements of a secure electronic signature?
a. An employee uses their private key stored on a personal USB drive to sign a contract.
b. The private key is stored in a shared cloud folder accessible by multiple employees.
c. Private key is stored on a smartcard issued only to the signatory.
d. The signatory uses their private key to sign documents offline.
10. Who has the authority to prescribe security procedures and practices under Section 16 of the IT Act 2000?
a. The signatory
b. Any private certifying authority
c. The Central Government
d. The Supreme Court of India
11. The security procedures and practices prescribed under Section 16 are meant for the purposes of which sections?
a. Sections 14 and 15
b. Sections 10 and 11
c. Sections 17 and 18
d. Sections 12 and 13
12. Which of the following statements reflects the proviso under Section 16?
a. Security procedures must be uniform for all transactions.
b. Security procedures can be ignored for small businesses
c. Security procedures must consider commercial circumstances, nature of transactions, and related factors.
d. Only foreign transactions require security procedures.
13. Which of the following illustrates Section 16’s requirement about commercial circumstances?
a. A low-value internal memo requires the same strict security procedure as a multi-crore contract.
b. The Central Government may prescribe stricter security procedures for high-value or sensitive transactions.
c. Security procedures are uniform and ignore transaction type.
d. Only government contracts require security procedures.
14. Who appoints the Controller of Certifying Authorities under Section 17?
a. The Supreme Court of India
b. The Central Government
c. Any Certifying Authority
d. State Governments
15. Under Section 17, the Controller performs functions:
a. Independently, without any supervision
b. Only under the direction of Certifying Authorities
c. Only for private companies
d. Subject to general control and directions of the Central Government
16. Deputy Controllers and Assistant Controllers perform functions:
a. Assigned by the Supreme Court
b. Assigned by the Controller under his general superintendence and control
c. Assigned by State Governments
d. Independently of the Controller
17. The qualifications, experience, and terms of service of the Controller and other officers are:
a. Decided by the Controller
b. Prescribed by the Central Government
c. Determined by the employees themselves
d. Based on international standards only
18. A new branch office of the Controller’s office is established in a city. Who decides the location?
a. The Controller himself
b. Deputy Controllers
c. The Central Government
d. Certifying Authorities
19. Which of the following is true about the seal of the Controller’s office?
a. It is optional for official documents
b. There shall be a seal of the office of the Controller
c. Only Deputy Controllers can use the seal
d. Seal is only needed for government circulars
20. Which of the following statements is false?
a. The Central Government may appoint Deputy Controllers and Assistant Controllers.
b. The Controller functions under the general control of the Central Government.
c. The location of branch offices is decided by the Controller alone.
d. Qualifications and terms of service are prescribed by the Central Government.
21. Which of the following is a function of the Controller under Section 18?
a. Supervising activities of Certifying Authorities
b. Issuing physical passports
c. Managing private bank accounts
d. Conducting elections
22. The Controller can certify:
a. Digital documents only
b. Public keys of Certifying Authorities
c. Employee identity cards
d. Printed certificates of schools
23. The Controller lays down standards to be maintained by:
a. Private banks
b. Certifying Authorities
c. Corporate HR departments
d. Any government office
24. Maintaining a public database containing disclosure records of Certifying Authorities is a function of:
a. Controller
b. Central Government
c. Private Certifying Authorities
d. Subscribers
25. The Controller specifies the form and content of:
a. Employee payslips
b. Electronic signature certificates and keys
c. Company marketing materials unrelated to digital signatures
d. Physical ID cards
26. Which of the following is not a function of the Controller under Section 18?
a. Resolving conflicts of interest between Certifying Authorities and subscribers
b. Specifying terms and remuneration for auditors of Certifying Authorities
c. Conducting subscriber financial audits
d. Laying down duties of Certifying Authorities
27. Who determines the conditions under which Certifying Authorities conduct their business?
a. Certifying Authorities themselves
b. Controller
c. Subscribers
d. Central Government without Controller’s input
28. A subscriber has a dispute with a Certifying Authority regarding disclosure of information. Which Section 18 function is relevant?
a. Exercising supervision over activities of Certifying Authorities
b. Resolving conflicts between Certifying Authorities and subscribers
c. Certifying public keys
d. Specifying forms of accounts
29. A Certifying Authority wants to appoint an auditor and set remuneration. Who specifies the terms under Section 18?
a. The auditor themselves
b. Central Government only
c. The Controller
d. Subscribers
30. Who can recognize a foreign Certifying Authority under Section 19?
a. Supreme Court of India
b. Controller of Certifying Authorities with prior approval of the Central Government
c. Private Indian Certifying Authorities
d. Any international organization
31. Electronic signatures issued by a recognized foreign Certifying Authority are:
a. Not valid in India
b. Valid for purposes of the IT Act 2000
c. Valid only if notarized in India
d. Valid only for international transactions
32. Recognition of a foreign Certifying Authority is subject to:
a. No conditions
b. Approval of State Governments
c. Approval of subscribers
d. Conditions and restrictions specified by regulations
33. Who has the power to revoke recognition of a foreign Certifying Authority?
a. Central Government alone
b. Controller, with reasons recorded in writing, by notification in the Official Gazette
c. Supreme Court of India
d. Subscribers
34. A foreign Certifying Authority was recognized under Section 19 but later contravened the conditions of recognition. What happens?
a. Recognition continues automatically
b. Controller may revoke recognition by notification in the Official Gazette
c. Only Central Government can revoke recognition, Controller cannot
d. The certificates issued before violation become invalid
35. Which of the following statements is false regarding Section 19?
a. The Controller can recognize foreign Certifying Authorities
b. Recognition is subject to prior approval of the Central Government
c. Recognition is automatic once the Controller approves
d. Recognition can be revoked for contravention of conditions
36. Who can apply for a licence to issue Electronic Signature Certificates under Section 21?
a. Only Government authorities
b. Any person
c. Only foreign companies
d. Only banks
37. Application for licence to issue Electronic Signature Certificates must be made to:
a. Central Government
b. Controller
c. Supreme Court
d. Certifying Authority
38. A licence shall not be issued unless the applicant fulfils requirements relating to:
a. Qualification, expertise, manpower, financial resources, and infrastructure
b. Political affiliation
c. Personal recommendation
d. Public voting
39. The validity period of a licence granted under Section 21 is:
a. Permanent
b. For such period as prescribed by the Central Government
c. Five years fixed
d. Ten years fixed
40. A licence issued under Section 21 is:
a. Transferable with Controller’s permission
b. Heritable by legal heirs
c. Not transferable or heritable
d. Freely saleable
41. A company applies for a licence but lacks adequate financial resources. What is the likely outcome?
a. Licence must be granted because anyone can apply
b. Licence cannot be issued unless prescribed requirements are fulfilled
c. Licence will be granted temporarily
d. Licence is automatic after application
42. A licensed Certifying Authority sells its licence to another company after restructuring. Is this valid?
a. Yes, if both companies agree
b. Yes, with subscriber consent
c. No, because the licence is not transferable
d. Yes, after court approval
43. If a licence holder dies, the legal heir claims the right to operate as a Certifying Authority. Under Section 21:
a. This is valid as licence is heritable
b. This is invalid as licence is not heritable
c. It depends on Central Government discretion
d. It becomes valid after 30 days
44. The application for issue of a licence must be in:
a. Any format chosen by the applicant
b. The form prescribed by the Central Government
c. Oral form
d. Digital format only
45. Every application for licence must be accompanied by:
a. A certification practice statement
b. A voter ID copy
c. Income tax return
d. Police clearance certificate
46. The application must include a statement regarding:
a. Company profits
b. Procedures for identification of the applicant
c. Marketing strategies
d. Foreign collaborations
47. The application fee for licence shall:
a. Be unlimited
b. Not exceed twenty-five thousand rupees
c. Be fixed at ₹1,00,000
d. Be decided by the applicant
48. Additional documents required with the application are:
a. Prescribed by the Central Government
b. Determined by the applicant
c. Decided by subscribers
d. Optional
49. A company submits an application in its own designed format instead of the prescribed form. What is the likely outcome?
a. Application must be accepted
b. Application may be rejected for not being in the prescribed form
c. Form does not matter
d. It will be accepted if fee is paid
50. Which of the following is NOT mandatory under Section 22?
a. Certification Practice Statement
b. Identification procedure statement
c. Payment of prescribed fee
d. Approval from subscribers
51. An applicant submits all required documents but forgets to pay the prescribed fee. The Controller should:
a. Issue licence anyway
b. Reject or keep application pending until fee is paid
c. Waive the fee automatically
d. Grant temporary licence
52. An application for renewal of a licence must be in:
a. Any format chosen by the licensee
b. The form prescribed by the Central Government
c. Oral form
d. Email format only
53. The renewal application fee shall not exceed:
a. ₹25,000
b. ₹10,000
c. ₹5,000
d. ₹50,000
54. The renewal application must be made at least:
a. 30 days before expiry
b. 60 days before expiry
c. 45 days before expiry
d. 15 days before expiry
55. Who prescribes the form and fee for renewal of licence?
a. Controller
b. Central Government
c. Certifying Authority
d. Supreme Court
56. Which of the following statements is false regarding renewal of licence?
a. Renewal application must be filed at least 45 days before expiry
b. Renewal fee cannot exceed ₹5,000
c. Renewal form is prescribed by the Central Government
d. Renewal application can be filed after expiry without consequences
57. The Central Government prescribes a renewal fee of ₹4,800 and a specific format. A Certifying Authority submits the renewal 50 days before expiry in a different format but with correct fee. What is correct?
a. Renewal must be granted
b. Application does not comply due to incorrect form
c. Form does not matter
d. Fee is invalid
58. Section 23 primarily ensures:
a. Automatic extension of licence
b. Timely and regulated renewal of licence under prescribed conditions
c. Permanent validity of licence
d. Renewal without any government oversight
59. Under Section 24, who has the power to grant or reject a licence?
a. Controller
b. Central Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Certifying Authority
60. Before granting or rejecting a licence, the Controller considers:
a. Only the application form
b. Documents accompanying the application and other relevant factors
c. Political background of applicant
d. Public opinion
61. Under Section 24, an application can be rejected:
a. Without any reason
b. Only after giving the applicant a reasonable opportunity of presenting his case
c. Automatically if incomplete
d. Without reviewing documents
62. Section 24 applies after receipt of an application under:
a. Section 22
b. Section 23
c. Section 21(1)
d. Section 19
63. The Controller considers additional security concerns not mentioned in the application before rejecting it. Is this allowed?
a. No, only documents submitted can be considered
b. Yes, the Controller may consider such other factors as he deems fit
c. No, only Central Government can consider other factors
d. Yes, but without hearing the applicant
64. An applicant submits complete documents but fails to satisfy infrastructure requirements. The Controller decides to reject the application after giving hearing. This action is:
a. Valid under Section 24
b. Invalid
c. Invalid because documents were complete
d. Automatically appealable to subscribers
65. A licence may be revoked if the Certifying Authority:
a. Changes office address
b. Makes a false statement in the licence application
c. Hires new employees
d. Updates its website
66. Failure to comply with the terms and conditions of licence may result in:
a. Automatic renewal
b. Suspension or revocation of licence
c. Warning only
d. No action
67. A licence shall not be revoked unless:
a. Central Government approves
b. Public notice is issued
c. Certifying Authority is given reasonable opportunity of showing cause
d. Subscribers complain
68. During suspension of licence, a Certifying Authority:
a. Can continue issuing Electronic Signature Certificates
b. Cannot issue Electronic Signature Certificates
c. Can issue certificates with permission
d. Can transfer its licence
69. A Certifying Authority violated standards specified under Section 30. What action can the Controller take under Section 25?
a. No action
b. Immediately cancel without hearing
c. Revoke the licence after inquiry
d. Only impose a fine
70. A licence is suspended for 15 days without giving the Certifying Authority an opportunity of being heard. Is this valid?
a. Yes, suspension can exceed 10 days without hearing
b. No, suspension beyond 10 days requires reasonable opportunity of showing cause
c. Yes, if Controller believes it necessary
d. Yes, if Central Government approves
71. Which of the following is NOT a ground for revocation under Section 25?
a. False statement in application
b. Contravention of provisions of the Act
c. Failure to maintain specified procedures and standards
d. Minor clerical error without material impact
72. Section 25 reflects which legal principle?
a. Absolute power of Controller
b. Automatic cancellation of licence
c. Principles of natural justice
d. Permanent validity of licence
73. When a licence of a Certifying Authority is suspended or revoked, the Controller shall:
a. Keep it confidential
b. Publish notice in the data base maintained by him
c. Inform only the Central Government
d. Notify subscribers privately
74. If repositories are specified, the Controller shall publish notice of suspension or revocation in:
a. Any one repository
b. Only government website
c. All such specified repositories
d. Newspapers only
75. Section 26 primarily promotes:
a. Confidential handling of suspension
b. Transparency and public access to regulatory actions
c. Private settlement between Controller and Certifying Authority
d. Automatic restoration of licence
76. Under Section 27, who has the power to delegate authority?
a. Central Government
b. Controller
c. Deputy Controller
d. Certifying Authority
77. Delegation of powers by the Controller must be:
a. Oral
b. Implied
c. In writing
d. Through public notice only
78. The Controller may authorise which of the following to exercise his powers?
a. Subscribers
b. Deputy Controller, Assistant Controller, or any officer
c. Central Government
d. Private companies
79. Under Section 28, who can investigate contraventions of the IT Act?
a. Only Central Government
b. Controller or any officer authorised by him
c. Supreme Court
d. Certifying Authority
80. The investigation under Section 28 relates to contraventions of:
a. The IT Act, rules, and regulations made thereunder
b. Only the IT Act
c. Only rules
d. Only regulations
81. The Controller exercises powers similar to which authorities while investigating?
a. Police authorities
b. Income-tax authorities under Chapter XIII of the Income-tax Act, 1961
c. RBI authorities
d. SEBI authorities
82. Section 33 creates liability of:
a. Strict civil nature
b. Criminal nature
c. Administrative nature
d. Contractual nature
83. Section 34 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Suspension of licence
b. Disclosure
c. Investigation
d. Penalty
84. Disclosure under Section 34 is mandatory for:
a. Subscriber
b. Controller
c. Certifying Authority
d. Central Government
85. Which of the following must be disclosed by a Certifying Authority?
a. Electronic signature Certificate
b. Encryption key of subscriber
c. Passwords
d. Internal audit report
86. Certification Practice Statement is required to be disclosed under:
a. Section 30
b. Section 31
c. Section 34
d. Section 35
87. Notice of suspension or revocation to be disclosed under Section 34 relates to:
a. Subscriber certificate
b. Controller certificate
c. Certifying Authority certificate
d. Government notification
88. Section 34(1) applies to certificates:
a. Applied for
b. Issued by the Authority
c. Expired
d. Rejected
89. Section 34(2) applies when an event affects:
a. Profit margin
b. Integrity of computer system
c. Office location
d. Employee strength
90. Persons to be notified under Section 34(2)(A. are those:
a. Who issued certificate
b. Who are likely to be affected
c. Who applied for licence
d. Who regulate Authority
91. Disclosure under Section 34 is linked with:
a. Trust in electronic transactions
b. Tax compliance
c. Criminal investigation
d. Cyber forensics
92. Section 34 primarily protects interests of:
a. Government
b. Controller
c. Subscribers and relying parties
d. Employees
93. Disclosure of adverse facts must be:
a. may be Partial
b. Selective
c. Complete as prescribed
d. Confidential
94. Section 35 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Grant of licence to Certifying Authority
b. Issue of electronic signature Certificate
c. Recognition of foreign Certifying Authorities
d. Suspension of licence
95. Who may apply for the issue of an electronic signature Certificate under Section 35?
a. Only Indian citizens
b. Only companies
c. Any person
d. Only subscribers approved by Controller
96. Application for electronic signature Certificate shall be made to:
a. Controller
b. Central Government
c. Certifying Authority
d. Appellate Tribunal
97. The form of application under Section 35(1) shall be prescribed by:
a. Controller
b. Central Government
c. Certifying Authority
d. State Government
98. The maximum fee for application for electronic signature Certificate is:
a. Five thousand rupees
b. Ten thousand rupees
c. Twenty-five thousand rupees
d. Fifty thousand rupees
99. The application fee under Section 35 is payable to:
a. Central Government
b. Controller
c. Certifying Authority
d. Appellate Tribunal
100. Different fees may be prescribed for:
a. Different classes of applicants
b. Different States
c. Different Certifying Authorities
d. Different types of certificates only
101. Every application under Section 35(3) shall be accompanied by:
a. Identity proof only
b. Certification practice statement
c. Licence copy
d. Audit report
102. If there is no certification practice statement, the application must include:
a. Court affidavit
b. Statement containing particulars specified by regulations
c. Government notification
d. Subscriber agreement
103. After receipt of application, the Certifying Authority may:
a. Automatically issue certificate
b. Keep application pending indefinitely
c. Refer matter to Controller only
d. Grant or reject the application
104. Rejection of application under Section 35 must be:
a. Oral
b. Confidential
c. Recorded in writing
d. Approved by Controller
105. An application under Section 35 cannot be rejected unless:
a. Controller approves
b. Fees are unpaid
c. Applicant is given reasonable opportunity of showing cause
d. Regulations permit
106. The principle followed before rejection of application is:
a. Strict liability
b. Natural justice
c. Absolute discretion
d. Estoppel
107. Fee limit prescribed under Section 35 is:
a. Mandatory minimum
b. Fixed fee
c. Maximum limit
d. Penalty amount
108. Section 35 applies at which stage?
a. After revocation
b. At the stage of certificate application
c. During investigation
d. During appeal
109. Section 36 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Suspension of Digital Signature Certificate
b. Representations upon issuance of Digital Signature Certificate
c. Renewal of licence
d. Audit of electronic records
110. Representations under Section 36 are made by:
a. Subscriber
b. Controller
c. Certifying Authority
d. Central Government
111. The Digital Signature Certificate must be:
a. Kept confidential
b. Published or made available to relying persons
c. Filed with court
d. Submitted to Controller only
112. Acceptance of Digital Signature Certificate must be by:
a. Certifying Authority
b. Controller
c. Subscriber
d. Central Government
113. The subscriber must hold which key corresponding to the public key listed in the certificate?
a. Master key
b. Secret key
c. Private key
d. Encryption key
114. The subscriber’s private key must be capable of:
a. Encryption only
b. Verification only
c. Creating a digital signature
d. Storage of data
115. The public key listed in the certificate is used to:
a. Create digital signature
b. Encrypt information
c. Store private key
d. Verify digital signature
116. The information contained in the Digital Signature Certificate must be:
a. Confidential
b. Encrypted
c. Accurate
d. Approved by court
117. The Certifying Authority certifies that it has no knowledge of:
a. Any criminal offence
b. Any technical defect
c. Any material fact affecting reliability
d. Any subscriber details
118. A Digital Signature Certificate under Section 36 is linked with:
a. Licence of Controller
b. Cryptographic key pair
c. Electronic Gazette
d. Electronic contract
119. The Certifying Authority must ensure that the public key:
a. Is secret
b. Matches private key of subscriber
c. Is approved by Controller
d. Is generated by Government
120. Section 37 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Revocation of licence
b. Recognition of foreign authority
c. Issuance of certificate
d. Suspension of Digital Signature Certificate
121. A Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended on request of:
a. Any government authority
b. Subscriber listed in the certificate
c. Any police officer
d. Any internet service provider
122. A Digital Signature Certificate may also be suspended if:
a. Fees are unpaid
b. Certificate expires
c. Certifying Authority considers it necessary in public interest
d. Subscriber changes address
123. Suspension in public interest is based on:
a. Mandatory rule
b. Judicial order
c. Opinion of the Certifying Authority
d. Recommendation of Controller
124. Maximum period for suspension without hearing the subscriber is:
a. Ten days
b. Fifteen days
c. Thirty days
d. Forty-five days
125. Suspension beyond fifteen days requires:
a. Approval of Controller
b. Gazette notification
c. Opportunity of being heard to the subscriber
d. Court order
126. Communication of suspension must be made by:
a. Certifying Authority
b. Central Government
c. Controller
d. Appellate Tribunal
127. Communication of suspension is required to be made to:
a. Controller
b. Central Government
c. Subscriber
d. Public at large
128. Suspension under Section 37 is:
a. Permanent
b. Temporary
c. Automatic
d. Irrevocable
129. Hearing requirement under Section 37 is linked with:
a. Mode of suspension
b. Duration of suspension
c. Place of suspension
d. Cost of suspension
130. Communication after suspension is:
a. Optional
b. Discretionary
c. Mandatory
d. Advisory
131. Suspension of Digital Signature Certificate affects:
a. Licence of Certifying Authority
b. Validity of electronic signature
c. Controller’s powers
d. Court jurisdiction
132. Section 38 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Suspension of Digital Signature Certificate
b. Revocation of Digital Signature Certificate
c. Issuance of licence
d. Renewal of certificate
133. Power to revoke a Digital Signature Certificate lies with:
a. Controller
b. Central Government
c. Certifying Authority which issued the certificate
d. Appellate Tribunal
134. A Digital Signature Certificate may be revoked on request of:
a. Controller
b. Subscriber or person authorised by him
c. Any third party
d. Central Government
135. Revocation of Digital Signature Certificate can take place upon:
a. Suspension of licence
b. Non-payment of fees
c. Expiry of certificate
d. Death of the subscriber
136. If the subscriber is a firm, revocation may occur upon:
a. Change in partners
b. Dissolution of the firm
c. Change of address
d. Change of auditor
137. If the subscriber is a company, revocation may occur upon:
a. Merger
b. Amalgamation
c. Winding up of the company
d. Change of directors
138. A Certifying Authority may revoke a Digital Signature Certificate at any time if:
a. Fees are unpaid
b. Material fact in the certificate is false or concealed
c. Subscriber requests suspension
d. Certificate is about to expire
139. Revocation may take place if the Certifying Authority’s private key:
a. Is updated
b. Is renewed
c. Is compromised affecting reliability
d. Is replaced
140. Subscriber declared insolvent can result in:
a. Revocation of Digital Signature Certificate
b. Automatic renewal
c. Suspension only
d. Transfer of certificate
141. If the subscriber is a company which has ceased to exist, the certificate may be:
a. Renewed
b. Suspended only
c. Revoked
d. Transferred
142. A Digital Signature Certificate shall not be revoked unless:
a. Gazette notification is issued
b. Controller approves
c. Subscriber is given opportunity of being heard
d. Public notice is issued
143. Opportunity of being heard is required before:
a. Suspension only
b. Renewal
c. Issuance
d. Revocation
144. Communication of revocation must be made by:
a. Controller
b. Central Government
c. Certifying Authority
d. Appellate Tribunal
145. Communication of revocation must be made to:
a. Subscriber
b. Public at large
c. Controller
d. Central Government
146. Revocation under Section 38 is different from suspension because revocation is:
a. Temporary
b. Conditional
c. Permanent
d. Automatic
147. Which of the following is NOT a ground for revocation under Section 38?
a. False material fact
b. Insolvency of subscriber
c. Expiry of certificate
d. Compromise of security system
148. Section 39 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Notice of suspension or revocation
b. Suspension of licence
c. Grant of Digital Signature Certificate
d. Renewal of certificate
149. Notice under Section 39 is required when suspension or revocation is done under:
a. Section 35 only
b. Section 36 only
c. Section 37 or Section 38
d. Section 40 only
150. Who is responsible for publishing the notice of suspension or revocation?
a. Controller
b. Certifying Authority
c. Central Government
d. Appellate Tribunal