Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -9 PDF
1. The International Gita Mahotsav is celebrated in:
a. Kurukshetra
b. Panipat
c. Ambala
d. Hisar
2. Which district is famous for Basmati rice?
a. Karnal
b. Sirsa
c. Rewari
d. Mahendragarh
3. World Tourism Day is celebrated on:
a. 27 September
b. 21 September
c. 5 October
d. 14 November
4. Indonesia joined BRICS in:
a. 2023
b. 2024
c. 2025
d. 2026
5. International Day of Happiness is celebrated on:
a. 18 March
b. 19 March
c. 20 March
d. 21 March
6. Which part of the plant conducts water?
a. Phloem
b. Xylem
c. Cortex
d. Epidermis
7. Shipki La Pass connects India with:
a. Nepal
b. China
c. Bhutan
d. Myanmar
8. The "Kalamkari" art form is primarily associated with:
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Odisha
c. Rajasthan
d. Assam
9. The unit of electric charge is:
a. Ampere
b. Volt
c. Coulomb
d. Ohm
10. The ancient site of Rakhigarhi is located in:
a. Hisar
b. Jind
c. Rohtak
d. Karnal
11. The Battle of Buxar was fought in:
a. 1757
b. 1764
c. 1761
d. 1773
12. The cave complex at Karle is associated with:
a. Buddhism
b. Jainism
c. Shaivism
d. Sikhism
13. The standard meridian of India passes through:
a. Allahabad (Prayagraj)
b. Delhi
c. Mumbai
d. Chennai
14. International Day of Forests is observed on:
a. 21 March
b. 22 March
c. 7 April
d. 5 June
15. The Kesavananda Bharati judgment was delivered in:
a. 1967
b. 1971
c. 1973
d. 1975
16. The Western Ghats are also called:
a. Sahyadri
b. Nilgiri
c. Satpura
d. Vindhya
17. The Election Commission is a:
a. Constitutional Body
b. Statutory Body
c. Executive Body
d. Judicial Body
18. Which mission is India's first solar mission?
a. Chandrayaan-3
b. Gaganyaan
c. Aditya-L1
d. Astrosat
19. The Jataka tales are related to:
a. Jainism
b. Buddhism
c. Shaivism
d. Vaishnavism
20. Which element is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Iodine
d. Zinc
21. Which Article provides for impeachment of the President?
a. Article 56
b. Article 61
c. Article 72
d. Article 74
22. The doctrine of Basic Structure was evolved in:
a. Golaknath Case
b. Kesavananda Bharati Case
c. Minerva Mills Case
d. Berubari Case
23. If 2×3 = 8 and 4×5 = 24, then 6×7 = ?
a. 40
b. 46
c. 48
d. 52
24. Which hormone is called emergency hormone?
a. Insulin
b. Thyroxine
c. Adrenaline
d. Estrogen
25. World Environment Day is observed on:
a. 22 March
b. 7 April
c. 5 June
d. 10 December
26. Which part of the atom contains no charge?
a. Electron
b. Proton
c. Neutron
d. Positron
27. Surajkund is famous for:
a. Cattle Fair
b. Handicrafts Fair
c. Camel Fair
d. Book Fair
28. The chemical symbol of gold is:
a. Gd
b. Ag
c. Au
d. Go
29. Sher Shah Suri built the:
a. Red Fort
b. Grand Trunk Road
c. Buland Darwaza
d. Jama Masjid
30. World Tuberculosis Day is observed on:
a. 22 March
b. 23 March
c. 24 March
d. 25 March
31. 65% of 200 =
a. 110
b. 120
c. 130
d. 140
32. OPEC headquarters is located in:
a. Geneva
b. Vienna
c. Paris
d. Brussels
33. Which temple is known as the "Black Pagoda"?
a. Jagannath Temple
b. Konark Sun Temple
c. Meenakshi Temple
d. Lingaraja Temple
34. The largest freshwater lake by area is:
a. Lake Superior
b. Lake Victoria
c. Lake Baikal
d. Caspian Sea
35. 8 × 9 − 16 =
a. 54
b. 56
c. 58
d. 60
36. International Volunteer Day is celebrated on:
a. 3 December
b. 5 December
c. 8 December
d. 10 December
37. Which gas is evolved during photosynthesis?
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon Dioxide
d. Hydrogen
38. Which city is called the "Mini Cuba of India" due to boxing success?
a. Rohtak
b. Bhiwani
c. Hisar
d. Jind
39. Which Bhakti saint composed devotional songs in Marathi?
a. Kabir
b. Tukaram
c. Ramananda
d. Surdas
40. The decimal system in India developed significantly during:
a. Maurya Period
b. Gupta Period
c. Vedic Period
d. Sangam Period
41. The largest delta in India is:
a. Mahanadi Delta
b. Godavari Delta
c. Sundarbans Delta
d. Krishna Delta
42. Which acid is present in gastric juice?
a. Sulphuric Acid
b. Nitric Acid
c. Hydrochloric Acid
d. Acetic Acid
43. The Suez Canal connects:
a. Red Sea & Mediterranean Sea
b. Black Sea & Mediterranean Sea
c. Arabian Sea & Red Sea
d. Pacific & Atlantic Oceans
44. Complete the series:
a. 2, 4, 8, 16, __
b. 18
c. 24
d. 32
45. Who composed the Sanskrit grammar Ashtadhyayi?
a. Patanjali
b. Panini
c. Kalidasa
d. Bana
46. The emblem of India is adopted from:
a. Amaravati Stupa
b. Sanchi Stupa
c. Sarnath Lion Capital
d. Ajanta Cave
47. If TABLE = UBCMF, then CHAIR = ?
a. DIBJS
b. DIBJR
c. DICJS
d. DHCIR
48. The Elephanta Caves are dedicated mainly to:
a. Vishnu
b. Buddha
c. Shiva
d. Mahavira
49. The headquarters of NATO is in:
a. Paris
b. Brussels
c. Berlin
d. Rome
50. The largest mangrove forest in India is:
a. Bhitarkanika
b. Sundarbans
c. Pichavaram
d. Coringa
51. Which statement is correct under Section 137?
a. Delay in suing always discharges surety
b. Surety is discharged automatically
c. Mere delay or forbearance does not discharge surety unless agreed otherwise
d. Surety is never liable
52. A Burmese Buddhist husband and wife carrying on business together are:
a. Partners by presumption of law
b. Partners if profits are shared equally
c. Not partners merely by reason of their marital status
d. Partners only when the firm is registered
53. Section 169 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:
a. Rights of bailee
b. Finder’s right to sell goods
c. Duties of bailor
d. Contract of guarantee
54. Which Section of the Civil Procedure Code grant exemption to Members of Legislatures from arrest and detention under civil process?
a. Section 80
b. Section 134
c. Section 135A
d. Section 132
55. Which one of the following facts constitutes a Contingent Contract?
a. A contracts to pay B Rs. 10,000 if B’s house is burnt
b. Where a salt lake was offered by way of lease on deposit of a sum of money within a specified period
c. Acceptance of a tender for up to 1000 tons of coal to be supplied as and when any order is placed during the financial year
d. When a bank offers a locker to its customer subject to the condition that the customer makes a fixed deposit of rupees one lac with the bank before the end of the month.
56. Under Muslim Law the following are guardians for marriage of a minor:
I. Father
II. Mother
III. State
IV. Brother
Choose the correct order in which their guardianship accrues:
a. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
b. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
c. (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
d. (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
57. The term “Res Sub Judice” means
a. Stay of suit
b. Stay of appeal
c. Stay of application
d. Stay of execution
58. Any objection of interrogatories may be taken on the ground that it is:
a. Irrelevant
b. Scandalous
c. Not exhibited bona fide
d. All or any those
59. Attachment of land paying revenue to the State Government of a ‘person absconding shall be made:
a. By taking possession
b. By appointing a receiver
c. Through Collector of the district where land is situated
d. By any other means deemed fit
60. The rigor of conclusive presumption of legitimacy under Section 116 of the BSA can only be rebutted by:
a. DNA testing about paternity
b. non-access of parties
c. the fact that wife was observing the menstrual period
d. the fact that the wife had undergone tubectomy recently
61. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Admission is acknowledging any right of liability under civil law, made
a. orally before a judicial authority
b. in writing before a notary
c. by conduct and document, as well as orally, but not in electronic form
d. by conduct, orally, or in writing or contained in electronic form
62. Exemption from personal appearance in the court is provided under
a. Section 133 of CPC
b. Section 132 of CPC
c. Section 143 of CPC
d. Section 142 of CPC
63. During trial, statements of an accused person are recorded by the court under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 under
a. Section 346
b. Section 347
c. Section 351
d. Section 314
64. Assertion (A): Bail, not jail, is the general rule in bailable offence in India.
Reason (R): Personal liberty is the most cherished right of a human being.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
65. A voluntarily confession is admissible in evidence when made:
a. To a police officer
b. To a magistrate having competent jurisdiction
c. To a Village Sarpanch with a request to save him from police
d. Where it leads to no discovery of facts and made to the police officer
66. Three years period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence punish able with imprisonment for a term not exceeding—
a. One year
b. Three years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
67. Sentence of death awarded by court of Sessions, the proceedings shall be submitted to confirmation before:
a. The State Government
b. The Central Government
c. The High Court
d. The Supreme Court
68. Which one of the following sections of the BSA deals with the relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law books?
a. Section 37
b. Section 32
c. Section 38
d. Section 36
69. The Court application for plea bargaining by the accused, to satisfy itself that it is made voluntarily
a. Examines him in open Court
b. Examines him in Camera
c. Records his evidence on Oath
d. Seeks his affidavit
70. In the case of Inder Mohan Goswami & Another v. State of Uttaranchal & Others, the Supreme Court held that non-bailable warrant should be:—
a. issued only when summons or bailable warrants would be unlikely to have the desired result of bringing a person to court
b. liberally issued to ensure speedy justice.
c. used only in offences against the human body.
d. declared as unconstitutional.
71. Against which of the following offences right of private defence of body does not extend to the causing of death?
a. Rape
b. Gratifying unnatural lust
c. Causing miscarriage
d. Kidnapping
72. The main objective of Section 21A is:
a. Speed up criminal trials
b. Avoid conflicting judgments in matrimonial disputes
c. Increase divorce cases
d. Reduce court jurisdiction
73. Section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:
a. Bailment
b. Pledge, pawnor and pawnee
c. Contract of guarantee
d. Finder of goods
74. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. Keso Shau v. Saligram — Section 17 BNS
b. Sita Ram v. State of Rajasthan — Section 18 BNS
c. Southwark London Borough Council v. Williams — Section 19 BNS
d. Bablu v. State of Rajasthan — Section 27 BNS
75. According to Section 2(11) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, nothing is said to be done or believed in good faith which is done or believed without
a. Due care or diligence
b. Due attention or bona fide
c. Due care & attention
d. Due diligence or bona fide
e. None of these
76. A contract of sale is made by:
a. Delivery only
b. Payment only
c. Offer to buy or sell goods and acceptance of such offer
d. Registration only
77. If the defendant fails to file written statement .
a. the court would hear the suit ex-parte
b. the court may pass judgment against him
c. the court shall issue notice
d. none of the above
78. In Indian Contract Act, certain relations resembling with contracts are provided under
a. Chapter IV
b. Chapter V
c. Chapter VI
d. Chapter VII
79. Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:
a. Restitution of conjugal rights
b. Conditions for a Hindu marriage
c. Void marriages
d. Divorce
80. Which one of the following does not find a place under the provision on Sec. 94, C.P.C. relating to supplemental proceedings?
a. Arrest before judgement
b. Attachment before judgement
c. Temporary injunction
d. Appointment of executors
81. Muslim jurisprudence is known as-
a. Fiqah
b. Qiyas
c. Quran
d. Hadith
82. Such transfer has effect as if seller was:
a. Owner
b. Agent
c. Expressly authorised by owner
d. Bailee
83. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The right of private defence under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is
a. An equitable remedy
b. A legal remedy
c. A judicial remedy
d. An extra judicial remedy
84. Which of the following conditions makes a marriage void?
a. Age requirement
b. Mental disorder
c. Existing spouse at the time of marriage
d. Lack of registration
85. Which of the following section of the BSA says that confession caused by inducement, threat or promise is irrelevant?
a. Section 25
b. Section 26
c. Section 27
d. None of these
86. Abetment of an offence is
a. Always an offence
b. Never an offence
c. May be an offence depending upon the circumstances but not always
d. May not be an offence depending upon the circumstances of the case
87. Burden of proof:
a. partially determines the right to begin
b. substantially determines the right to begin
c. wholly determines the right to begin
d. none of the above
88. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law, provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge or against his will. Factual
Situation: Ram, Shyam and Vipin were friends. Vipin was in love with Anita and wanted to marry her. One day she told him that her marriage was fixed with a rich NRI and that he should not disturb her again in future. Vipin, who became depressed, told this to his friends. Ram suggested that they should go to a nearby Bar and drink some Beer so that Vipin could relax. As Vipin was not habituated to drinks, initially he declined but later at the bar Ram told Vipin to take a little Whisky, which he did hesitatingly. After a while Vipin became totally intoxicated and started to say that Anita ditched him. Shyam, who was also drunk then said, "If you are so worried, go and kill her". A little while later all three friends parted company. Vipin went straight to Anita's hostel, called her out and shot her.
a. Vipin is not liable for murdering Anita as he did not realize the seriousness of the act as he was drunk.
b. Vipin is not liable for the murder as he was forced to drink Whisky when the initial suggestion was to take Beer.
c. Vipin and his friends are jointly liable for murdering Anita as the suggestion to 'kill her' developed in the group.
d. Vipin is liable for murdering Anita as he was under the influence of a drink, which he took voluntarily.
89. A defendant should present written statement of his defence within thirty days from the service of summons on him. The said period can be extended up to:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 100 days
90. 'Doli incapax' in criminal law describes the liability of—
a. An insane person
b. A child below seven years of age
c. A child below twelve years of age
d. A person under the influence of drugs / intoxicants
91. Justice Mahmood clarified that dower (mahr) is an essential aspect of a Muslim marriage contract, not a price paid for the marriage. This was held in which case?
a. Abdul Kadir v. Salima (1886) ILR 8 All. 149
b. Bai Tahira v. Ali Hussain, AIR 1979 SC 36
c. Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, AIR 1985
d. Danial Latifi and others v. Union of India (2001) 7 SCC 740
92. A agrees to sell a horse worth Rs. 1,000 for Rs. 10. A’s consent to the agreement was freely given. The agreement is:
a. Voidable
b. Void
c. Contract
d. Illegal
93. Who can appoint a police officer as an assistant public prosecutor for courts of Magistrates?
a. Superintendent of Police
b. District and Sessions Judge
c. District Magistrate
d. High Court on the request of the State
94. Statement of a person who is dead or cannot be found is not relevant:
a. when it is made in the course of business
b. when it is in favour of the interest of the maker
c. when it relates to the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death
d. when it relates to existence of relationships
95. Section 8 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:
a. Conditions of marriage
b. Ceremonies of marriage
c. Registration of Hindu marriages
d. Void marriages
96. Section 52 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 provides for examination of the:
a. Person accused of rape by medical practitioner
b. Arrested person accused of rape by medical practitioner at the request of arrested person
c. Person accused of rape by medical practitioner at the request of police officer
d. Person accused of rape by medical practitioner at the request of the victim
97. If only a part of the consideration or object is unlawful, the contract under Section 24 shall be
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. illegal
98. Receipt of a share of profits by a previous owner as consideration for sale of goodwill:
a. Automatically creates partnership
b. Does not of itself make him a partner
c. Makes him a sleeping partner
d. Makes him a partner only if he participates in management
99. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, came into enforcement on:
a. December 25, 2024
b. July 1, 2025
c. July 1, 2024
d. December 25, 2025
100. Under which section of C.P.C. a notice is required to be given at least two months before filing a suit against a Central or State Government?
a. Section 50 C.P.C.
b. Section 51 C.P.C.
c. Section 80 C.P.C.
d. Section 81 C.P.C.
Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -9 PDF