Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -3 PDF
1. Which disease is caused by deficiency of iron?
a. Rickets
b. Anemia
c. Goitre
d. Scurvy
2. The Qutub Minar was completed by:
a. Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b. Iltutmish
c. Balban
d. Alauddin Khalji
3. If APPLE = BQQMF, then MANGO = ?
a. NBOHP
b. NBMHP
c. NBOGO
d. OCPHP
4. The largest Union Territory by area is:
a. Delhi
b. Jammu & Kashmir
c. Ladakh
d. Puducherry
5. The Supreme Court was established on:
a. 26 January 1950
b. 28 January 1950
c. 26 November 1949
d. 15 August 1947
6. SCO stands for:
a. Security Cooperation Organization
b. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
c. Strategic Cooperation Office
d. South Cooperation Organization
7. Guru Tegh Bahadur was executed by:
a. Akbar
b. Jahangir
c. Aurangzeb
d. Shah Jahan
8. In which case did the Supreme Court expand Article 21 by introducing "procedure established by law must be just, fair and reasonable"?
a. A.K. Gopalan
b. Maneka Gandhi
c. Golaknath
d. Kesavananda Bharati
9. Which Gupta ruler faced Hun invasions?
a. Kumaragupta I
b. Chandragupta I
c. Skandagupta
d. Samudragupta
10. The founder of the Sikh religion was:
a. Guru Gobind Singh
b. Guru Arjan Dev
c. Guru Nanak
d. Guru Tegh Bahadur
11. The International Solar Alliance headquarters is in:
a. Gurugram
b. Mumbai
c. Pune
d. Ahmedabad
12. The largest thermal power station in India is:
a. Neyveli
b. Vindhyachal
c. Korba
d. Talcher
13. The saint Chaitanya Mahaprabhu is associated with:
a. Shaivism
b. Vaishnavism
c. Jainism
d. Sikhism
14. The headquarters of UNICEF is in:
a. Geneva
b. New York
c. Paris
d. Rome
15. Brihadeshwara Temple was built by:
a. Rajendra I
b. Rajaraja I
c. Vijayalaya
d. Kulottunga
16. Which language was used in most Ashokan inscriptions?
a. Sanskrit
b. Pali
c. Prakrit
d. Tamil
17. Who wrote Mudrarakshasa?
a. Vishakhadatta
b. Banabhatta
c. Kalidasa
d. Harisena
18. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha may be removed by:
a. President
b. Lok Sabha alone
c. Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by majority and agreed by Lok Sabha
d. Supreme Court
19. Which one is different?
a. Rose
b. Lotus
c. Lily
d. Mango
20. Which part of the digestive system absorbs maximum nutrients?
a. Stomach
b. Small Intestine
c. Large Intestine
d. Esophagus
21. The world’s largest producer of tea is:
a. India
b. Sri Lanka
c. China
d. Kenya
22. Which literary work was composed by Kalhana?
a. Rajatarangini
b. Harshacharita
c. Vikramankadevacharita
d. Kiratarjuniya
23. The headquarters of UNCTAD is located in:
a. Geneva
b. Paris
c. Rome
d. New York
24. The highest dam in India is:
a. Bhakra Dam
b. Tehri Dam
c. Hirakud Dam
d. Sardar Sarovar Dam
25. Which element is required for chlorophyll formation?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Magnesium
d. Calcium
26. The permanent members of the UN Security Council are:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
27. Which ministry implements the PM Surya Ghar Yojana?
a. Ministry of Defence
b. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
c. Ministry of Education
d. Ministry of Commerce
28. International Mother Language Day is observed on:
a. 19 February
b. 20 February
c. 21 February
d. 22 February
29. 1/5 of 250 =
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 70
30. Cube of 3:
a. 9
b. 18
c. 27
d. 36
31. If 3 + 2 = 13 and 4 + 3 = 25, then 5 + 4 = ?
a. 39
b. 41
c. 45
d. 49
32. Haryana's first woman Olympic medalist is:
a. Geeta Phogat
b. Sakshi Malik
c. Babita Phogat
d. Vinesh Phogat
33. The author of Abhijnanasakuntalam is:
a. Banabhatta
b. Kalidasa
c. Panini
d. Vishakhadatta
34. The Battle of Plassey took place in:
a. 1757
b. 1761
c. 1526
d. 1857
35. Free and compulsory education for children was originally provided under:
a. Article 44
b. Article 45
c. Article 46
d. Article 47
36. World Human Rights Day is observed on:
a. 8 March
b. 21 June
c. 10 December
d. 24 October
37. Which district is known as the “Rice Bowl of Haryana”?
a. Karnal
b. Hisar
c. Rewari
d. Bhiwani
38. Universal Children's Day is observed on:
a. 14 November
b. 19 November
c. 20 November
d. 24 November
39. The normal pH range of blood is:
a. 6.8–7.0
b. 7.35–7.45
c. 8.0–8.5
d. 5.5–6.0
40. Which battle was fought at Panipat in Haryana?
a. First Battle of Panipat
b. Second Battle of Panipat
c. Third Battle of Panipat
d. All of these
41. The source of river Indus lies in:
a. Tibet
b. Nepal
c. India
d. Bhutan
42. The largest producer of mica in India is:
a. Jharkhand
b. Gujarat
c. Punjab
d. Kerala
43. Pinjore Gardens are also known as:
a. Yadavindra Gardens
b. Mughal Gardens
c. Rose Gardens
d. Heritage Gardens
44. The Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University is located at:
a. Karnal
b. Rohtak
c. Hisar
d. Sonipat
45. Which scientist discovered blood circulation?
a. Harvey
b. Jenner
c. Koch
d. Fleming
46. The human heart has:
a. 2 Chambers
b. 3 Chambers
c. 4 Chambers
d. 5 Chambers
47. Which scientist developed the polio vaccine?
a. Edward Jenner
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Jonas Salk
d. Robert Koch
48. The Caspian Sea is:
a. Largest freshwater lake
b. Largest inland water body
c. Deepest lake
d. Largest river
49. World AIDS Day is observed on:
a. 30 November
b. 1 December
c. 5 December
d. 10 December
50. Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
51. Set-off can be
a. legal set-off
b. equitable set-off
c. both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
52. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title.
a. A must not be allowed to prove his want of title.
b. A must be allowed to prove his want of title.
c. The court will decide.
d. None of the above.
53. Under which of the following sections of BNS, 2023 the death sentence can be commuted without the consent of the offender:
a. Section 6
b. Section 5
c. Section 7
d. None of these
54. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 deals with appeal from original decree?
a. Section 90
b. Section 96
c. Section 82
d. Section 98
55. Under Section 26, court may pass orders regarding:
a. Only custody of property
b. Custody, maintenance and education of minor children
c. Only adoption
d. Only guardianship of father
56. A has been convicted by a magistrate of the first class and was sentenced with imprisonment for a term of one month. Can A appeal?
a. No, A cannot appeal
b. A can appeal to the Sessions Court
c. A can appeal to the Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. A can appeal to the High Court
57. Representative Suit under Order 1 Rule 8 of CPC may be permitted by the Court when—
a. Numerous persons are parties in another suit
b. Numerous persons belong to the same family
c. Numerous persons have the same interest in one suit
d. None of the above
58. Exception applies where the owner is:
a. Silent
b. Absent
c. Precluded by his conduct from denying seller’s authority
d. Unknown
59. If-in any case in which the defendant sets up counter-claim, the suit of the plaintiff is stayed, discontinued or dismissed the counter claim—
a. Shall be stayed
b. Nevertheless be proceeded with
c. May be continued with the leave of High Court
d. NO specific provision
60. H and W were married recently but W preferred to stay mostly at her parental place. This conduct of W made H angry. He came to take W back from her parental place. When W refused to go he tried to take her forcibly. At this F, the father of W, became angry and gave H two blows with a lathi which landed on the head of H who died soon thereafter. F is being tried for murder. He pleads rights of private defence against the act of H which he says amounts to 'abduction'. Prosecution pleads 'abduction' is not an offence and therefore there can be no exercise of right of private defence. Which one among the following statements gives the correct legal position in the matter?
a. F cannot plead right of private defence against the act of abduction as 'abduction' per se is not an offence
b. F can plead right of private defence as abduction in this case involves an assault and assault with intention to abduct or kidnapping falls in Section 38 of the BNS in which case right of private defence can extend to causing of death
c. F cannot plead right of private defence as no offence had been committed against his person
d. F cannot plead right of private defence as he had not called the police to protect his daughter
61. In which Section of the Civil Procedure Code provision relating to “Suit of a Civil nature” has been provided?
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
62. 'X' sees 'Z' committing what appears to 'X' to be a murder. 'X', in exercise, to the best of his judgement, exerted in good faith, of the powers, which the law gives to all persons of apprehending murderers in the act, seizes 'Z', in order to bring 'Z' before proper authorities. But it turns out that 'Z' was acting in exercise of his right of self defence. 'X' is guilty of:
a. No offence
b. Wrongful restraint
c. Wrongful confinement
d. Assault
63. Amount paid under a compromise can be recovered if:
a. It is against the promisor’s orders
b. It is made without any reason
c. It is prudent and not against promisor’s instructions or is authorized
d. It is always recoverable
64. The right of 'private defence' is:
a. A punitive right
b. A protective right
c. An obligation towards the state
d. None of the above
65. ‘A’, a tradesman leaves his goods at B’s house by mistake. ‘B’ uses the goods as his own. Then:
a. B need not pay to ‘A’
b. B is bound to pay ‘A’
c. There is no contract
d. None of the above
66. A unilateral contract in which only one party is bound, is also known as a:
a. Fault contract
b. Implied contract
c. Executed contract
d. Executory contract
67. If A makes a Hiba of certain property to B with a condition that B shall not transfer the property, then —
a. Hiba is void and condition is valid
b. Condition is void and Hiba is valid
c. Neither condition nor Hiba is valid
d. None of the above
68. Which provision of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with the 'withdrawal of complaint'?
a. Section 277
b. Section 278
c. Section 280
d. Section 259
69. Kaushal Rao v. State of Bombay, AIR 1958 SC 22 is related with which topic of the law of evidence?
a. Confession
b. Admission
c. Dying declaration
d. Estoppel
70. The statement of a solitary witness:
a. Can be relied upon by a Court
b. Cannot be relied upon by a Court
c. Can be relied upon if the Court concludes it to be correct and true
d. None of the above
71. An act which would otherwise be ' crime may in some cases be excused if the person accused of it shows that all except
a. It was done only in order to avoid consequences
b. Nothing was done than was reasonably necessary
c. The evil inflicted was not disproportionate to the evil avoided
d. None of the above
72. After sale of goodwill, a partner may not:
a. Carry on similar business
b. Advertise his business
c. Use the firm name
d. Compete with the buyer
73. The power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals from one High Court to another High Court can be exercised on an application by which one of the following?
a. Registrar of the High Court concerned
b. Attorney General of India
c. Chairperson of the Bar Council of India
d. Solicitor-General of India
74. Inherent powers under section 528 BNSS can be exercised by:
a. Any Criminal Court
b. The Supreme Court only
c. The Court of Session and the High Court
d. The High Court
75. "A", a blacksmith is seized by a gang of dacoits and compelled by threat of instant death to force open the door of Z's house to enter and plunder it. While committing dacoity, one of the dacoits kills Z's son. A is guilty of:
a. Murder
b. Dacoity with murder
c. Abetment of dacoity
d. No offence
76. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes:
List-I List-II
(Definitions) (Sections of BNSS.)
a. Complaint (i) Section 2(y)
b. Investigation (ii) Section 2(l)
c. Inquiry (iii) Section 2(h)
d. Victim (iv) Section 2(k)
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
b. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
c. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
d. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
77. Any law in force before commencement of the Act:
a. Always prevails
b. Ceases only if repealed expressly
c. Ceases to have effect if inconsistent with the Act
d. Applies equally with the Act
78. In a contract in which time is not essence of the contract, the failure to perform the contract before specified time:
a. Contract will become void.
b. The Promisee is entitled to compensation from the promisor for any loss occasioned to him by such failure
c. Contract will become voidable at the option of the promisor
d. Contract will become voidable at the option of the promise
79. Unless otherwise agreed, goods remain at the seller’s risk until:
a. Delivery
b. Payment
c. Property therein is transferred to the buyer
d. Inspection
80. As per Section 2(12) of CPC, ‘mesne profits’ of property are profits received by a person in;
a. Unlawful possession of the property
b. Wrongful possession of the property
c. Lawful possession of the property
d. Effective possession of the property
81. A firm is compulsorily dissolved by the adjudication of:
a. Any one partner as insolvent
b. All partners or all partners but one as insolvent
c. The managing partner as insolvent
d. Majority of partners as insolvent
82. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched?
a. McNaughten's case Section 22 of BNS
b. D.P.P. v. Beard Section 22 of BNS
c. Basudeo v. State Section 24 of BNS
d. Bhawooiwaji v. Mooljee Dayal Section 17 of BNS
83. The expression ‘Court which passed a decree’ is defined under which section Civil Procedure Code
a. 2(2)
b. 2(3)
c. 37
d. 38
84. What sent a catalogue of books, listing price of each book and specifying the place where the listed books are available be termed as?
a. An invitation to offer
b. An obligation to sell book
c. An offer
d. A promise to make available the books at the listed place
85. Circumstantial evidence is considered weaker evidence as compared to direct evidence
a. Because it has 2 errors of fallibility (i) of the fact from which inference is drawn being proved and (ii) of the inference to be drawn from the fact proved
b. Because the inference in circumstantial evidence is based upon a presumption
c. Because circumstances sometimes may tell a lie
d. Because circumstances evidence is based upon the process of deductive logic
86. A judgement contains—
a. Concise statement of the case
b. The decision on the point of determination and the reason thereof
c. The point for determination
d. All the above
87. Who has observed "Muslim Marriage is both a civil contract and a religious sacrament".
a. Amir Ali
b. Dr. Jang
c. Justice Sir Shah Suleiman
d. Justice Mahmood
88. A police officer has reasonable suspicion that K is involved in a murder case. He may
a. inform the superintendent of police
b. inform the magistrate of that area
c. arrest K without warrant
d. obtain warrant from the magistrate
89. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to common design is relevant fact under which Section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?
a. Section 11
b. Section 13
c. Section 8
d. Section 12
90. A knows that his horse had a damaged hoof which he filled up in such a way as to deny defect and sold it to B. This defect was subsequently discovered by B. The act of A will amount to:
a. A false suggestion
b. Active concealment of fact
c. Misrepresentation
d. Mistake
91. Abettor is a person:
a. Who commits the offence
b. Who instigates the commission of offence
c. Against whom the offence is committed
d. Who is innocent
92. Section 19 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:
a. Grounds of divorce
b. Court to which petition shall be presented
c. Void marriages
d. Maintenance
93. What is 'Shall Presume' in regard to a fact?
a. Final proof
b. Court may presume that the fact is proved
c. Court shall presume the fact as proved unless it is disproved
d. None of the above
94. Estoppel can be:
a. by silence
b. by negligence
c. by election
d. all the above
95. Bank Guarantee is an independent contract between:
a. Creditor and Debtor
b. Buyer and Seller
c. Bank and Beneficiary
d. None of the above
96. The appeal against an order of acquittal passed by the Court of Judicial Magistrate first class shall lie to:
a. The court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
b. The Court of Session
c. The High Court
d. The Supreme Court
97. Which one of the following is not a public document?
a. An unregistered family settlement
b. A registered sale deed
c. Judgment of High Court
d. Judgment of Civil Judge
98. No appeal under Section 28 lies on:
a. Divorce grounds
b. Custody matters
c. Subject of costs only
d. Maintenance orders
99. Among Muslim which school does not mention minimum amount of dower?
a. Hanafi
b. Maliki
c. Shafei
d. None of the above
100. Besides section 232 of BNSS which other section also provides for committal of cases to the Sessions Court?
a. 315
b. 316
c. 362
d. 328
Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -3 PDF