Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -2 PDF
1. The headquarters of Interpol is located in:
a. Paris
b. Lyon
c. Geneva
d. Brussels
2. Which Bhakti saint propagated the philosophy of Vishishtadvaita?
a. Madhvacharya
b. Vallabhacharya
c. Ramanuja
d. Basavanna
3. National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) is located at:
a. Rohtak
b. Karnal
c. Hisar
d. Sonipat
4. Mahavira was born at:
a. Vaishali
b. Kapilavastu
c. Lumbini
d. Taxila
5. Children's Day in India is celebrated on:
a. 11 November
b. 14 November
c. 20 November
d. 24 November
6. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:
a. 545
b. 550
c. 552
d. 560
7. Which vitamin contains cobalt?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin C
8. Which Article provides for the establishment of Administrative Tribunals?
a. Article 323A
b. Article 323B
c. Article 324
d. Article 325
9. Which blood cells transport oxygen?
a. WBC
b. Platelets
c. RBC
d. Plasma
10. International Day of Sport for Development and Peace is celebrated on:
a. 4 April
b. 5 April
c. 6 April
d. 7 April
11. Which temple is known as the "Big Temple"?
a. Meenakshi Temple
b. Brihadeeswara Temple
c. Lingaraja Temple
d. Jagannath Temple
12. Mission LiFE is related to:
a. Sports
b. Sustainable Lifestyle
c. Defence
d. Space Research
13. The highest mountain peak in South India is:
a. Doddabetta
b. Anaimudi
c. Mahendragiri
d. Nilgiri Peak
14. Which element is essential for haemoglobin formation?
a. Calcium
b. Iron
c. Sodium
d. Potassium
15. Constitution Day of India is observed on:
a. 24 November
b. 25 November
c. 26 November
d. 27 November
16. Fa-Hien visited India during:
a. Harsha
b. Chandragupta II
c. Ashoka
d. Kanishka
17. Which district is known for the Surajkund Crafts Mela?
a. Faridabad
b. Gurugram
c. Sonipat
d. Palwal
18. Kalidasa flourished during the reign of:
a. Harsha
b. Ashoka
c. Chandragupta II
d. Samudragupta
19. The Ain-i-Akbari was written by:
a. Badauni
b. Abul Fazl
c. Amir Khusrau
d. Barani
20. Green Hydrogen Mission is related to:
a. Space Technology
b. Clean Energy
c. Defence Technology
d. Banking
21. Malik Muhammad Jayasi wrote:
a. Akbarnama
b. Padmavat
c. Ain-i-Akbari
d. Baburnama
22. Haryana is bounded by how many states and one UT?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
23. Which acid is present in tamarind?
a. Formic Acid
b. Tartaric Acid
c. Citric Acid
d. Acetic Acid
24. SI on ₹5000 at 5% for 2 years:
a. ₹400
b. ₹450
c. ₹500
d. ₹550
25. The pH of lemon juice is approximately:
a. 2
b. 7
c. 9
d. 12
26. The largest producer of maize in the world is:
a. Brazil
b. China
c. USA
d. India
27. Which city is known as the “Manchester of South India”?
a. Chennai
b. Bengaluru
c. Coimbatore
d. Hyderabad
28. Day : Night :: Joy : ?
a. Happy
b. Smile
c. Sorrow
d. Cry
29. Statement: Some cars are buses.
Conclusion: Some buses are cars.
a. True
b. False
c. Uncertain
d. None of the above
30. The "Charaka Samhita" is primarily related to:
a. Astronomy
b. Medicine
c. Architecture
d. Music
31. The chemical name of baking soda is:
a. Sodium Carbonate
b. Sodium Bicarbonate
c. Calcium Carbonate
d. Potassium Carbonate
32. HCF of 15 and 25:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
33. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by:
a. Parliament
b. Prime Minister
c. President
d. Chief Justice of India
34. Statement: No birds are mammals.
Conclusion: No mammals are birds.
a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say
d. None of the above
35. ISRO headquarters is located in:
a. Chennai
b. Hyderabad
c. Bengaluru
d. Mumbai
36. Which wave can travel through vacuum?
a. Sound Wave
b. Water Wave
c. Electromagnetic Wave
d. Seismic Wave
37. The famous Battle of Karnal (1739) was fought between:
a. Akbar and Hemu
b. Nadir Shah and Muhammad Shah
c. Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
d. Marathas and Abdali
38. Which metal is used in thermometers?
a. Copper
b. Mercury
c. Silver
d. Zinc
39. Which continent is known as the “Dark Continent”?
a. Asia
b. Africa
c. Europe
d. Australia
40. The theme “One Earth, One Family, One Future” was associated with:
a. BRICS
b. G20 India
c. ASEAN
d. SCO
41. Pulicat Lake lies between:
a. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
b. Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
c. Kerala and Karnataka
d. Gujarat and Maharashtra
42. The Attorney General of India is appointed by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Chief Justice of India
c. President
d. Parliament
43. Which text contains rules of conduct and social duties?
a. Arthashastra
b. Manusmriti
c. Indica
d. Milindapanho
44. Which Sultan introduced strict market control measures?
a. Balban
b. Alauddin Khalji
c. Iltutmish
d. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
45. The Bahmani Kingdom was established in:
a. Bengal
b. Deccan
c. Punjab
d. Gujarat
46. Kurukshetra University was established in:
a. 1956
b. 1957
c. 1958
d. 1960
47. The Godavari is known as the:
a. Dakshin Ganga
b. Blue River
c. Golden River
d. Red River
48. Jan Dhan Yojana is related to:
a. Agriculture
b. Banking Inclusion
c. Education
d. Defence
49. The Thar Desert lies mainly in:
a. Gujarat
b. Punjab
c. Rajasthan
d. Haryana
50. World Health Day is celebrated on:
a. 7 April
b. 5 June
c. 22 March
d. 21 June
51. The doctrine of estoppel means:
a. Not to make statement in consonance to the earlier statement
b. Restriction to make statement contrary to the earlier statement/ admission
c. Res judicata
d. Vague statement
52. While exercising the power of revision under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the High Court cannot
a. discharge the accused
b. acquit the accused
c. grant bail to the accused
d. convert a finding of acquittal into one of conviction
53. After sale of goodwill, a partner may carry on a competing business:
a. Only with permission of the buyer
b. Provided he does not violate agreed restrictions
c. Only after court approval
d. Only after five years
54. Under which section of BNSS a Police Officer can release an accused on bail in non-bailable case?
a. Section 336
b. Section 367
c. Section 478
d. Section 480
55. Which one of the following is not required in filing a representative suit under Order 1 Rule 8 of the C.P.C.?
a. Numerous parties
b. Same interest
c. Leave of the court
d. Written permission of those who are being represented
56. X, an officer of a court of justice, being ordered by that court to arrest A, and after making due enquiry, believing B to be A, arrests B, What is the criminal liability of under the law?
a. Liable for the offence of wrongful confinement of B
b. Not liable for any offence as he acted in good faith under mistake of fact, which is, a defence under Section 14 of the BNS
c. Not entitled to the benefit of mistake of fact as he has not acted in good faith
d. Liable, because his act is a mistake of law and not mistake of fact
57. What does the expression "transit remand" denote?
a. It is a transfer of prisoner from one Jail to another
b. It is a transfer of criminal case from one Court to another
c. It is taking out an accused by police from one State to another State
d. It is taking out of the accused from Court to Prison.
58. The 'protection against double jeopardy' is contained in………….
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 3
59. Which kind of jurisdiction is not mentioned under Section 35 of the BSA
a. Probate
b. Admiralty
c. Insolvency
d. Revenue
60. The term "Court", as defined in Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 does not include
a. Presiding officer of a Labour Court
b. Tahsildar
c. Arbitrator
d. Commissioner appointed by a Civil Court
61. B, a man of unsound mind, sets fire to a dwelling house on A's instigation. Here, B is exempted from criminal liability (Section 22, BNS), but A is guilty of abetting mischief by fire with intent to destroy the house. The principle for this criminal liability may be explained by which one of the following explanations?
a. The abetment of an offence being an offence, the abetment of such an abetment is also an offence
b. The person who has been instigated to commit an offence may not be liable under criminal law for his act because of his being of unsound mind at the time of committing the offence but the abetment to commit mischief by fire being an offence, abetment of such offence incurs liability
c. To constitute offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed
d. It is not necessary to the commission of the offence by conspiracy that the abettor should work in concert with the person who commits it
62. ‘Set-off’ can be claimed
a. in any suit
b. in a recovery of money suit
c. in a suit for possession
d. in both (a) and (b)
63. The partners in a firm may extend or restrict the implied authority of any partner by:
a. Court order
b. Contract between the partners
c. Decision of the Registrar
d. Majority vote alone
64. 'A' is accused of murder of 'B' by pistol alleged to be purchased on 15th September at Dehradun. A makes a statement that on 15th September he was at Lucknow, not at Dehradun. A's Statement is a relevant fact under:
a. Section 8
b. Section 9(2)
c. Section 10
d. Section 14
65. When an accused person is pardoned under Section 343 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, he
a. becomes a witness for the prosecution.
b. becomes an ordinary witness.
c. should be examined as a witness first in the trial court.
d. becomes a witness for the defence.
66. In a contract for sale of unascertained goods, property in the goods:
a. Passes on contract
b. Passes on delivery
c. Does not pass unless and until goods are ascertained
d. Passes on payment
67. Civil Procedure Code at the first hearing of the suit, the Court must
a. Frame and record issues
b. Record the evidence of plaintiff
c. Ascertain whether the allegations in the pleadings are admitted or denied
d. All of the above
68. Previous statements for the purpose of contradicting a witness under Section 148 do not include
a. Statement made by a witness as accused in a previous case
b. Letter written by him
c. Deposition in another case
d. Admission made by him in a written statement
69. Provisions of Section 80 of C.P.C. are binding on
a. The Court of a Civil Judge
b. The Court of District Judge
c. The High Court
d. All of the above
70. Which Section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with agreements in restraint of legal proceedings?
a. Section 27
b. Section 29
c. Section 23
d. Section 28
71. Right of private defence is available:
a. Against all members of an unlawful assembly.
b. In a free fight
c. To retrieve from the wrong doer one's property
d. Both (a) & (b) above
72. For a defense of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication
a. Can be self-administered
b. Administered against his will or knowledge
c. Should not be self-administered
d. None of the above
73. Implied and contingent Talaq is not approved by —
a. Maliki
b. Shia
c. Shafei
d. All of the above
74. Section 162 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:
a. Termination of bailment by use
b. Termination of gratuitous bailment by death
c. Duties of bailee
d. Delivery of goods
75. Lien arises where goods are sold:
a. On instalments
b. Without stipulation as to credit
c. On mortgage
d. On lease
76. General power to amend any error or defect in any proceedings in a suit vests in the Court by virtue of
a. Section 152, CPC
b. Section 153, CPC
c. Section 153A, CPC
d. Section 153B, CPC
77. In granting decree, court must also consider:
a. Political status of parties
b. Whether there is any legal ground to refuse relief
c. Religion only
d. Age only
78. An agreement in restraint of trade under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. enforceable
79. Which of the following is correct answer?
i. Provisions of BNSS do not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of BNSS not apply to the State of Nagaland.
a. Only (i) Is Correct
b. Only (ii) Is Correct
c. Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
d. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
80. Some militants are hiding in a house occupied by an individual Militants are engaged in an attack on the police party by firing from the house. The police persons, to defend themselves, fire towards the house and an innocent person in the house is hit by the bullet and dies as a result. The police persons, are guilty of:
a. No offence
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Murder
d. Death by rash or negligent act
81. ‘A’ deposits a box of jewels with ‘B’ as his agent. ‘C’ alleges that the jewels were wrongfully obtained by ‘A’ from him and claims them from ‘B. There ‘B’
a. can institute inter-pleader suit against A’.
b. can institute Inter-pleader suit against ‘C’
c. can institute Inter-pleaser suit against A’ and ‘C both.
d. cannot institute an Inter-pleader suit against A’ and ‘C’.
82. Which one of the following cases relates to right of private defence?
a. Jaidev v. State
b. Ram Rattan v. State
c. Guljar Singh v. State
d. Rajesh Kumar v. Dharamveer
83. When a criminal act is done by several persons, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same maimer as if it were done by him alone if it is done in furtherance of:
a. Common object
b. Common intention
c. Common motive
d. Common motive as well as common object.
84. Facts not otherwise relevant become relevant if they are inconsistent or makes highly probable or improbable any fact-in-issue or a relevant fact
a. Cannot be relevant
b. Relevant U/s 9 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
c. Relevant U/s 8 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
d. Relevant U/s 7 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
85. A proposal when accepted becomes:
a. Promise
b. Agreement
c. Contract
d. Acceptance
86. Which one of the following statement is correct?
A voidable contract is an agreement which is:
a. Enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others.
b. Enforceable by the parties thereto.
c. Enforceable with the permission of the court
d. Not enforceable by any of the parties thereto.
87. Section 13A aims to:
a. Encourage divorce
b. Provide lesser relief than divorce where appropriate
c. Punish spouses
d. Make marriage void
88. Under Section 85 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 any person other than the proclaimed offender can file objections relating to attachment of property. What will be the time limit from the date of attachment?
a. One year
b. One month
c. Six months
d. Three months
89. A suit can be dismissed in default
a. under Order IX, Rule 2 of CPC
b. under Order IX, Rule 3 of CPC
c. under Order IX, Rule 8 of CPC
d. both (b) & (c)
90. The provision in the BNSS which may be invoked by a civil court is Section
a. 349
b. 350
c. 379
d. 250
91. Under Section 18, contravention of age requirement may result in:
a. Only fine
b. Only imprisonment
c. Rigorous imprisonment or fine or both
d. Only warning
92. Where the handwriting of a teacher is in question the opinion of his principal may be relevant under which Section of the BSA?
a. Section 41
b. Section 48
c. Section 49
d. Section 50
93. A marriage between persons with consanguinity relationship under Muslim Law is —
a. Sahih
b. Fasid
c. Batil
d. None of these
94. The fact sought to be proved is called
a. Factum probans
b. Factum probandum
c. Lex Fori
d. Lex Loci
95. An offer made to the public at large is called.
a. Valid offer
b. Specific offer
c. General offer
d. None of the above
96. Which of the following persons are entitled under Section 339 BNSS to conduct the prosecution of the case without the permission of the Magistrate:
a. Public Prosecutor
b. Government Advocate
c. Assistant Public Prosecutor
d. All the above
97. The Supreme Court of India ruled that a child born from an irregular marriage between a Muslim man and a Hindu woman is considered legitimate and has the right to inherit their father's property. This was held in which case?
a. Mohammed Salim v. Shamsudeen & Ors. (2019) 4 SCC 130
b. Md. Sonu @ Sonu v. The State of Jharkhand &
c. Shaikh Taslim Shaikh Hakim vs The State of Maharashtra And Another, 2022
d. Razia v. State of U.P. (2022)
98. Under Section 19 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consent caused by coercion is:
a. Voidable
b. Valid
c. Illegal
d. None of these
99. Maintenance order may be rescinded if:
a. Petitioner refuses payment
b. Petitioner remarries or commits specified misconduct
c. Respondent requests
d. Court changes mind only
100. A suit in respect of public charities is provided - under
a. Section 92 of CPC
b. Section 41 of CPC
c. Section 100 of CPC
d. Section 105 of CPC
Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -2 PDF