ASSAM JUDICIAL SERVICE GRADE – 3 2017 (PRELIMS)

Directions: Question Nos. 1 to 5: Identify the synonym of the following words:-

1. Ubiquitous

a. epiphany

b. awkward

c. drama

d. being everywhere

2. Pulchritude

a. eagerness

b. beautiful

c. youthful

d. frugality

3. Collusion

a. conflicting

b. secretive

c. malicious

d. agreement to deceive

4. extol

a. violent

b. heaps of praise

c. extortion

d. critical

5. foppish

a. concerned with outfit

b. intelligent

c. chiding

d. attractive

Directions: Question Nos. 6 to10: Identify the antonym of the following words:

6. Grieve

a. retire

b. defeat

c. rejoice

d. resist

7. wane

a. happy

b. wax

c. submissive

d. combatant

8. Exasperate

a. placate

b. cheap

c. edgy

d. expensive

9. dainty

a. dear

b. inexpensive

c. clumsy

d. debit

10. approximately

a. generally

b. exactly

c. sufficiently

d. abundantly

11. Which State has the largest coastline in India?

a. Gujrat

b. Karnataka

c. Tamil Nadu

d. Andhra Pradesh

12. The States which have common borders with China are :

1. Jammu and Kashmir.

2. Sikkim

3. Arunachal Pradesh

4. Himachal Pradesh.

a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 1 and 3

c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

13. The Ufa city, where annual BRICS Summit -2015 was held is in which country?

a. China

b. Russia

c. South Africa

d. Brazil.

14. Name the Indian who had become the first female Indian gymnast to qualify for the Olympics?

a. Bisweswar Nandi

b. Anju Bala

c. Dipa Karmakar

d. Rupinder Kaur

15. "Beyond the Lines - An Autobiography" is authored by

a. Justice Krishna Iyer

b. Mr. Soli Sorabjee

c. Mr. Arun Shourie

d. Mr Kuldip Nayar

Facts for answering question Nos. 16 to 20: Six army jawans P, Q, R, S, T and U are standing in a line for a Drill. They are arranged according to their height, the tallest being at the back and the shortest in the front. U is exactly between P and Q. T is shorter than S but taller than R who is taller than P. T and U have two jawans between them. P is not the shortest among them.

16. What is the position of T ?

a. Between S and R

b. Between P and R

c. Between P and Q

d. In front of R.

17. Who is the tallest ?

a. Q

b. T

c. S

d. R

18. If we start counting from the shortest, which boy is fourth in the line?

a. T

b. R

c. S

d. P

19. Who is the shortest?

a. Q

b. S

c. R

d. U

20. Who is just front of R?

a. P

b. U

c. S

d. None of these

21. Who has written the book "Indomitable Spirit"?

a. Ms. Arundhati Roy

b. Shri Narendra Modi

c. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

d. Justice Krishna Iyer

22. Which of the following is not an essential ingredient to be considered for granting an order of temporary injunction under Order 39 Rules 1 & 2 of CPC.

a. Balance of convenience

b. Pecuniary loss

c. Prima facie Case

d. Public Interest

23. Offences for which a police officer does not need a warrant to effect arrest is called

a. non-compoundable offences

b. non-cognizable offences

c. compoundable offences

d. cognizable offences

24. This right against self-incrimination is guaranteed by the Constitution under :

a. Article 19

b. Article 20

c. Article 21

d. Article 22

25. Uberrima fides are relationships of:

a. utmost good faith

b. good faith

c. fiduciary relationship

d. gratuitous relationships

26. The difference between wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement is:

1. Every case of wrongful confinement is a case of wrongful restraint.

2. Every case of wrongful restraint is a case of wrongful confinement.

3. A right of way is hindered in wrongful restraint.

4. A restriction to defined premises is imposed in wrongful confinement.

a. Only 1 is correct.

b. Only 2 is correct.

c. Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

d. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

27. Which of the following is not one of the Alternate Dispute Redressal mechanism under section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure

a. Judicial Settlement

b. Mediation

c. Conciliation

d. Collective Bargaining

28. Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with which of the followings

a. Administration and Control of Schedule Areas and Schedule Tribes

b. Union List, State List and Concurrent Lists

c. Provision as to Disqualification on the Ground of Defection

d. Allocation of Seats in the Council of States

29. Section 313 of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with

a. Power of the Court to compound offences

b. Power to examine the accused

c. Power to order local inspection

d. Power to issue warrant

30. Under the Hindu law, a deed of gift of immovable property

a. Must be effected by a registered instrument

b. Can be made orally

c. Both (A) &

d. None of the above

Direction: Questions Nos. 31 to 35: Fill up the blank by using the correct Article:

31. Let us play chess

a. no article

b. a

c. an

d. the

32. She wants to become,------- engineer

a. a

b. an

c. the

d. no article

33. He hopes to join—----- university soon

a. a

b. an

c. the

d. no article

34. —------Oranges are grown in Nagpur

a. a

b. an

c. the

d. no article

35. This is—------- car I bought yesterday

a. no article

b. a

c. an

d. the

Directions for answering question Nos. 36 to 40:- In each of these questions certain fact situation has been provided. You have to pick the correct answer from the options provided by correctly applying the given principle.

36. Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to have committed theft.Facts: Rajiv was in the habit of flying kites. One day while flying his kite, Pawan,his neighbor, with the intent to capture Rajiv's kite, used a spiked thread thereby cutting Pawan's line. When Rajiv's kite was cut Pawan went and captured it but Rajiv complained to the police.

a. Pawan's act shall not constitute theft.

b. Pawan has committed theft

c. Pawan's act shall constitute theft at the point he captured the kite

d. Pawan's act shall constitute theft from the point he cut Rajiv's line

37. Principle: A master is liable for the acts of the servant in the course of employment; a principal is liable for the acts of the agent in the course of agency, but a hirer is not liable for the acts of the independent contractor done in a contract for service.
Facts: Rakesh was desperately short of hands in his son's wedding. Finding no person to collect the flowers he requested Jeevan, who was working as part of the catering contingent of Varun caterers to whom the catering contract was given, to collect the flowers from the florist. While returning from the florist Jeevan had met with an accident and the question arose as to whether Rakesh was liable for the accident?

a. Rakesh would be liable because Jeevan was his servant.

b. Rakesh would not be liable because Jeevan was an employee of Varun caterer which was an independent contractor.

c. Rakesh would be liable because Jeevan was an independent contractor.

d. Rakesh would be liable as Jeevan was acting as his agent.

38. Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.

Facts: Yadav, suffering from advanced schizophrenia, a multiple personality disorder, entered into a contract with Hari. Later, when Hari sought to enforce the contract, Yadav took a plea that at the time of entering into the contract he was not in sound mental state and hence, the contract was void. In order to get the contract enforced

a. Yadav must prove that he was in an unsound mental state.

b. Hari must prove that Yadav was in a normal state of mind.

c. Both the above.

d. None of the above.

39. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it by reason of unsoundness of mind incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.

Facts: Amit, out of frustration, decides to commit suicide. His attempt is thwarted and when asked he says he was too depressed to live and therefore took a well thought-out decision to commit suicide.

a. Amit is guilty of the offence of attempt to commit suicide.

b. Amit is not guilty as he failed in his attempt to commit suicide.

c. Amit cannot be held to be guilty as he was depressed and not in a normal state of mind.

d. None of the above.

40. Principle: Ignorantia facit excusat, i.e. ignorance of law is no excuse.

Facts: David, an Australian national, had visited the Ranthambor National Park located in Northern India and was told by his friend Karan that killing of black buck, an endangered species, is permissible under the Indian laws. Being ignorant about the Indian Laws and believing on the advice of his friend Karan, David killed a black buck. The Police later arrested David on the charge of killing an endangered species. David informed the Police that he had acted on the advice of his friend Karan as he had no knowledge about the Indian Law.

a. David is not guilty as he is not an Indian citizen and was unaware of the local law.

b. Both David and Karan are equally guilty of killing the black buck.

c. Only David is guilty and can be punished.

d. David is guilty but cannot be punished under the Indian Laws as he was citizen of another country.

Direction: Question Nos. 41 to 46: Reasoning: Analogy

41. Dog: Rabies: Mosquito : ?

a. Plague

b. Death

c. Malaria

d. Sting

42. Man: Biography: Nation : ?

a. Leader

b. People

c. Geography

d. History

43. Doctor Diagnosis :: Judge: ?

a. Court

b. Punishment

c. Lawyer

d. Judgement

44. Horse: Jockey :: Car : ?

a. Mechanic

b. Chauffeur

c. Steering

d. Brake

45. Reading: Knowledge :: Work: ?

a. Experience

b. Employment

c. Engagement

d. Experiment

Directions: Question Nos. 46 to 50: From the options given against each question, choose the correct meaning of the legal maxims :-

46. Audi alteram partem

a. Allow the alternate plea

b. Hear the other side

c. Go by the written brief

d. Believe in God

47. Ex debito justitiae

a. As a matter of legal right

b. Not borne in law

c. An action without a direct cause

d. Right claimed on the basis of legal status

48. Damnum absque injuria

a. Damages for injury suffered

b. Wrongful action not causing damage

c. Wrong without injury

d. Injury without wrong

49. Actus curiae neminem gravabit

a. Actual litigant alone be heard

b. An act of the court shall prejudice no man

c. Court shall decide an issue based on its gravity

d. Court to decide all issues

50. Ipse dixit

a. By the very act itself

b. He himself said it

c. To escape notice

d. To become void

51. The speed of a train is 90 kmph. What is the distance covered by it in 10 minutes?

a. 15 kmph

b. 12 kmph

c. 10 kmph

d. 5 kmph

52. Bail may be given to :

a. an accused

b. convict

c. both the above

d. none of the above

53. In a computer, D-ROM is a kind of?

a. Optical disk

b. Magnetic disk

c. Magneto-Optical disk

d. None of these

54. For computers, what is the full form of IP?

a. Interface program

b. Interface protocol

c. Internet program

d. Internet protocol

55. Which section of IPC deals with dowry death-

a. 304

b. 498 (A)

c. 489 (A)

d. 304(B)

56. The President's Rule under Article 356 of Constitution remains valid for-

a. One year

b. Six months

c. Five months

d. Two months

57. The council of ministers remains in office so long as it enjoys the confidence of

a. President

b. Lok Sabha

c. Speaker

d. Prime Minister

58. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the

a. Federal Court

b. Governors

c. British Parliament

d. None of these

59. Article 39-A of the Constitution of India deals with

a. Free Legal Aid

b. Free and compulsory education

c. Free housing for the poor

d. Free medical aid to the citizen

60. Provisions as to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes areas are in which schedule of the constitution

a. Sixth Schedule

b. Fourth Schedule

c. Fifth Schedule

d. Seventh Schedule

61. The distinctive features of riot and unlawful assembly are an activity which is accompanied by

a. Causing alarm

b. Use of force and violence

c. Violence on a common purpose

d. All of the above

62. The constitutional philosophy that there shall be equal pay for equal work for both men and women finds mention in

a. Article 16 of the Constitution of India

b. Directive Principle of the State Policy

c. Preamble to the Constitution of India

d. As a Fundamental Right under Art 21 of the Constitution of India.

63. Fill in the gap with the offence that the accused has committed. Whoever dishonestly uses any movable property to his own advantage has committed the offence of

a. Wrongful gain

b. Breach of trust

c. Misappropriation

d. None of the above

64. Islamic Jurisprudence is called

a. Ulema

b. Figh

c. Wakf

d. Mutawalli

65. In every criminal trial

a. The accused must prove his innocence

b. The accused must cross examine defence witnesses

c. The prosecution alone has to prove the charge against the accused

d. The prosecution can rely on the lapses of the defence case alone to prove the charges.

66. Who is a 'Notary Public'?

a. A lawyer

b. A person well noted by the public

c. An official having authority to certify deeds

d. The Civil Judge Junior Division

67. Advisory Jurisdiction is exercised by

a. High Court

b. Supreme Court

c. District and Sessions Court

d. None of the above

68. Name the first woman Supreme Court Judge

a. Mrs. Anna Chandy

b. Ms.Fathima Beevi

c. Ms. Ruma Pal

d. Ms Ranja Desai

69. Which was the last case in India to be heard under the jury system?

a. Alavandar murder case

b. Lakshmikanthan murder case

c. Indira Gandhi's election case

d. Nanavati's case

70. Which was the first country to have a written Constitution?

a. UK

b. USA

c. France

d. Russia

Directions: Question Nos. 71 to 75: If the first three statements are treated as facts, which of the following statements in options I, II and III must also be a fact.

71. Fact 1: All chickens are birds.

Fact 2: Some chickens are hens.

Fact 3: Female birds lay eggs.

I. All birds lay eggs.

II. Hens are birds.

III. Some chickens are not hens

a. II only

b. I, II, and III

c. II and III only

d. None of the statements is a known fact.

72. Fact 1: Pictures can tell a story.

Fact 2: All storybooks have pictures.

Fact 3: Some storybooks have words.

I. Pictures can tell a story better than words can.
II. The stories in storybooks are very simple.
III. Some storybooks have both words and pictures.

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. None of the statements is a known fact.

73. Fact 1: Robert has four vehicles.

Fact 2: Two of the vehicles are red

Fact 3: One of the vehicles is a minivan.

I. Robert has a red minivan.

II. Robert has three cars.

III. Robert's favourite color is red.

a. I only

b. II only

c. II and III only

d. None of the statements is a known fact.

74. Fact 1: Islands are surrounded by water.

Fact 2: Maui is an island.

Fact 3: Maui was formed by a volcano.

I. Maui is surrounded by water.

II. All islands are formed by volcanoes.

III. All volcanoes are on islands.

a. I only

b. III only

c. I and II only

d. None of the statements is a known fact.

75. Fact 1: All drink mixes are beverages.

Fact 2: All beverages are drinkable.

Fact 3: Some beverages are red.

I. Some drink mixes are red.

II. All beverages are drink mixes.

III. All red drink mixes are drinkable.

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and III

d. None of the statements is a known fact.

76. Who wrote "Law Versus Justice'?

a. Hidayatullah

b. V.R. Krishna Lyer

c. Mohan Kumaramangalam

d. P.N. Bhagwati

77. What is meant by 'unliquidated damage'?

a. Fixed damages

b. Heavy damages

c. (C)Unfixed damages

d. Limited damage

78. Who drafted Indian Penal Code?

a. Sir James Stephens

b. Macaulay

c. Justice Coke

d. Mount Batten

79. What is meant by the expression "amicus curiae"?

a. Friend of the law court

b. Judges

c. Public Prosecutors

d. Government Pleaders

80. Which one is the first Assamese novel

a. Mirijiyori

b. Podum Kunwar

c. Bhanumati

d. Sudharmar Upakhyan

81. What is the other name for Sarada Act?

a. Hindu Marriage Act

b. Child Marriage Restraint Act

c. Gains of Learning Act

d. Dowry Prohibition Act

82. Which Articles in the Constitution deal with regulation of the subordinate courts?

a. Articles 78 to 101

b. Articles 145 to 148

c. Articles 233 to 237

d. Articles 266 to 253

83. Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

a. Primary Evidence

b. Admissibility of electronic record

c. Proof of contents of documentary evidence

d. Confession by accused

84. Which of the following would constitute "sale" under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

a. A transfer of ownership out of love and affection

b. A transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid, promised or part paid and part promised

c. A promise to transfer ownership in exchange for a price promised

d. A promise to transfer ownership in exchange for price paid.

85. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code deals with

a. Wrongful gain

b. Grievous hurt

c. Act in furtherance of common intention

d. Cruelty towards animals

86. Whoever defames another would be punishable with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend upto two years or with fine or with both under section -

a. 490 of the IPC

b. 499 of the IPC

c. 500 of the IPC

d. 505 of the IPC

87. Which of the following is not a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.

a. Freedom of speech and expression

b. Freedom to form associations or unions

c. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India

d. Freedom of self determination

88. Guidelines for safeguarding the rights of arrested persons has been laid down by the Supreme of India in which of the following cases:

a. Danial Latifi vs Union of India

b. Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab