1. Animals that eat flesh. (Select the word which closely fits the given definition)
(A) Herbivorous
(B) Carnivorous
(C) Graminivorous
(D) Vegetarian.
2. A general pardon granted by the Government to political offenders. (Select the word which closely fits the given definition)
(A) Amnesty
(B) Alimony
(C) Armistice
(D) Diplomacy.
3. Obscure (Choose the Opposite)
(A) Implicit
(B) Obnoxious
(C) Explicit
(D) Pedantic.
4. Mitigate (Choose the Opposite)
(A) Abate
(B) Aggravate
(C) Allay
(D) Alleviate.
5. Dilatory (Choose the Synonym)
(A) Procrastinating
(B) Narrowing
(C) Enlarging
(D) Portentous.
6. Sacrosanct (Choose the Synonym)
(A) Cheerful
(B) Mournful
(C) Sarcastic
(D) Most sacred.
7. There are views on the issue of giving bonus to the employees. (Complete the sentence using the appropriate word)
(A) independent
(B) divergent
(C) modest
(D) adverse.
8. Ram, the prince of Ayodhya,his siblings. (Complete the sentence using the appropriate word)
(A) adorned
(B) adored
(C) vitiated
(D) endangered.
9. Find the correctly spelt word
(A) Adulation
(B) Adlation
(C) Adulction
(D) Addulation.
10. X shoots an arrow targeting the left eye of Y, which hits the right eye of Y, due to which Y loses the vision of his right eye. X has committed an offence punishable under Section of Indian Penal Code
(A) 324
(B) 325
(C) 326
(D) 326
11. Under Section 45 of Indian Penal Code, life denotes:
(A) Life of a human being
(B) Life of an animal
(C) Life of a human being and an animal both
(D) Life of either human being or an animal
12. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs. 100, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:
(A) one year
(B) six months
(C) four months
(D) two months.
13. X works in the office of Y, who is a Chartered Accountant. Y hands over cash worth Rs. 1 Lac to X for being kept. X spends the said amount for purchase of furniture in his house. X has committed an offence of:
(A) Cheating
(B) Criminal breach of trust
(C) Dishonest misappropriation of property
(D) Mischief.
14. Section 511 of Indian Penal Code does not apply in case of:
(A) attempt of riot
(B) attempt of murder
(C) attempt of theft
(D) attempt of affray.
15. Under Section 141 of Indian Penal Code, an assembly of or more persons is designated as unlawful assembly.
(A) two
(B) seven
(C) five
(D) three.
16. When persons agree to do, or cause to be done an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy.
(A) several
(B) two or more
(C) three or more
(D) seven
17. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence, or giving false information to screen offender is punishable under section of Indian Penal Code.
(A) 201
(B) 202
(C) 203
(D) 204.
18. Whoever caused death by doing an act with the intention of causing death or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of
(A) Culpable homicide
(B) Murder
(C) Attempt to murder
(D) None of these.
19. Warrant case means a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding years.
(A) two
(B) three
(C) seven
(D) four.
20. The Court of a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding years.
(A) two
(B) three
(C) seven
(D) five.
21. Search warrant under Section 97 of Criminal Procedure Code may be issued to search for
(A) an absconder
(B) a person who is wrongfully confined
(C) a lunatic
(D) a witness.
22. When commission is to be issued for examination of a witness who is within the territory to which the Code of Criminal Procedure applies, to whom shall such commission be directed?
(A) The District Judge within whose jurisdiction the witness is to be found
(B) The District Magistrate within whose jurisdiction the witness is to be found
(C) The Chief Judicial Magistrate within whose jurisdiction the witness is to be found
(D) The Executive Magistrate within whose jurisdiction the witness is to be found.
23. With regard to a case involving a commission of a cognizable offence, the police will have powers to:
(A) investigate except the power to arrest without warrant
(B) investigate including the power to arrest without warrant
(C) investigate and arrest without warrant only after permission from the Magistrate .
(D) inves ti ga te and arres t w i thou t warran t only after informing the Magistrate
24. What is the maximum period for which an accused can be remanded to police custody?
(A) fifteen days
(B) one week
(C) two weeks
(D) ten days.
25. Within how much time, an application for interim maintenance under section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code should be disposed of?
(A) Sixty days from . the date of the service of notice of the application to the defendant/opponent
(B) Sixty days from the date of filing of the application
(C) thirty days from the date of service of notice of the application to the defendant/opponent
(D) ninety days from the date of service of notice of the application to the defendant/opponent.
26. As per Section 195 of Code of Criminal Procedure, cognizance of offences punishable under section 172 to 188 of Indian Penal Code can be taken on :
(A) the complaint in writing
(B) the police report
(C) the oral complaint
(D) all of these.
27. When can the provision of Section 210 of Criminal Procedure Code be invoked?
(A) When there is a complaint case and police is also investigating the matter.
(B) When there is a complaint case but police is not investigating the matter
(C) When there is a complaint case and police has already completed investigation and submitted a final report.
(D) all of these.
28. When does provision of Section 27 of Evidence Act apply?
(A) When the person giving information is an accused but not in police custody.
(B) When the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody.
(C) When the person giving information is in police custody but not an accused.
(D) When the person is neither in police custody nor an accused.
29. The presumption under Section 90 of the Evidence Act can be drawn in respect of:
(A) original documents
(B) certified copies
(C) uncertified copies
(D) all of these.
30. Under Section 142 of the Evidence Act, Leading questions as to which matters can be permitted to be asked in examination in Chief?
(A) matters which are undisputed
(B) matters which are highly disputed
(C) matters pertaining to character of a witness
(D) all of these.
31. The doctrine of estoppel is a:
(A) substantive law
(B) rule of equity
(C) rule of evidence
(D) law of pleadings.
32. When can any communication made during marriage be permitted to be disclosed either by the husband or by the wife?
(A) in the civil proceeding between the husband and the wife
(B) in the criminal proceedings instituted either by the wife or the husband against the other spouse
(C) in the matrimonial proceedings
(D) all of these.
33. Against whom shall an accomplice be a competent witness?
(A) an accused
(B) the plaintiff
(C) the complainant
(D) an investigating officer.
34. During re-examination of a witness:
(A) a new matter can be introduced as a matter of right generally
(B) a new matter can be introduced only with the permission of the court
(C) no new matter can be introduced at all
(D) none of these
35. The Court shall forbid any question which appears to it to be:
(A) intended to insult or annoy
(B) indecent and scandalous
(C) to shake the credibility of a witness
(D) a leading question.
36. Facts of which judicial notice is to be taken are stated in section of the Evidence Act.
(A) 56
(B) 57
(C) 58
(D) 55.
37. A thing which is subjected to a process prescribed for the purpose of rendering anything unfit for human consumption, is termed as in the Gujarat Prohibition Act.
(A) denatured
(B) spurious
(C) rotten
(D) liquor.
38. What is the term of imprisonment prescribed for being drunk and creating nuisance in a place to which the public has access?
(A) term which may extend to three years
(B) term which may extend to ten years
(C) term which may extend to seven years
(D) term which may extend to five years.
39. For an offencie punishable under which Section of the Gujarat Prohibition Act the maximum period of imprisonment prescribed for is ten years?
(A) Section 65
(B) Section 65A
(C) Section 65 A A
(D) Section 66
40. A draws a cheque in favour of B from his account maintained with a nationalised bank situated at Mumbai. B in turn, deposits the said cheque in his bank account at Vadodara, The cheque gets dishonoured for want of funds. The bank with which A and B maintain their respective accounts is the same, having its registered office at Delhi. The Court at which of the following places shall have the jurisdiction to try the case?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Vadodara
(D) All of these.
41. The presumption under section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act is in favour of
(A) drawer
(B) drawee
(C) holder
(D) none of these.
42. On the basis of which of the following documents, the Court shall presume the fact of dishonour of cheque?
(A) bank's slip
(B) the cheque in question
(C) the legal notice issued to the drawer
(D) the complaint filed before it.
43. The trial of an offence punishable under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act has to be trail.
(A) Summary
(B) Summons
(C) Warrant
(D) Sessions.
44. For the purpose of attracting the provisions of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, a cheque has to be presented to the bank :
(A) Within a period of six months
(B) within a period of six months from the date on which it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier
(C) within a period of 15 days from the date on wl^ich it is drawn
(D) within a period of three months from the date on which it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier
45 Cognizance of an offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act can be taken by a Court only on :
(A) a police report
(B) a complaint in writing
(C) an application to the Sessions Judge
(D) all of these.
46. The plaint for which of the following Civil suits shall, in. addition to the other statements necessary for plaints, state that the plaintiff claims no interest in the subject matter in dispute?
(A) interpleader suit
(B) suit for specific performance
(C) suit for eviction
(D) none of these.
47. Where a suit is for compensation for wrong done to the person or to movable property, if the wrong was done within the local limits of the jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides within the local limits of the jurisdiction of another court, the suit may be instituted
(A) in the court within whose local limits of the jurisdiction the wrong was done
(B) in the court within whose local limits of jurisdiction, the defendant resides
(C) at the option of the plaintiff in either of the said courts
(D) in the court within whose local limits of jurisdiction, the plaintiff resides.
48. What is the period for which a person can be detained in civil prison if execution of a decree is for the payment of sum of money exceeding five thousand rupees?
(A) not exceeding three months
(B) not exceeding six weeks
(C) not exceeding one month
(D) not exceeding two months.
49. No suit shall be instituted against the Government or against a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done by such public officer in his official capacity, until the expiration of next after notice in writing has been delivered.
(A) two months
(B) one months
(C) sixty days
(D) three months.
50. At which stage of the civil suit, an objection on the ground of misjoinder of causes of action shall be taken?
(A) at the time of or before settlement of issues
(B) at the time of filing the Written statement
(C) at the time of or before pronouncement of judgment
(D) at any stage.
51. Within what time a party who has obtained an order for leave to amend the pleadings, is required to carry out the necessary amendment, when no time is limited by the order?
(A) fourteen days
(B) fifteen days
(C) thirty days
(D) forty five days.
52. Within how much time from the date on which hearing of the Civil Suit is concluded, shall the court pronounce its judgment?
(A) thirty days
(B) sixty days
(C) ninety days
(D) any time.
53. In a summary suit, within how many days of service of summons, should the defendant put in his appearance?
(A) ten days
(B) fifteen days
(C) thirty days
(D) sixty days.
54. Which of the following provisions of the Civil Procedure Code deals with the inherent powers of the Court?
(A) Section 151
(B) Section 152
(C) Section 153
(D) Section 148
55. Order 17, Rule 1 of the Civil Procedure Code restricts the number of adjournments to be granted to a party to:
(A) five
(B) four
(C) three
(D) ten.
56. To which of the following proceedings Section 5 of Limitation Act does not apply?
(A) An appeal from an original decree
(B) An appeal from order
(C) Revision application
(D) Execution proceedings.
57. What is the period of limitation for filing an application for setting aside an abatement?
, (A) 60 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 90 days
(D) one month.
58. What is the period of limitation for filing a suit for redemption of mortgage?
(A) Twelve years
(B) Thirty years
(C) Five years
(D) Two years.
59. When does the provision of Section 4 of the Limitation Act apply?
(A) When certain period has been prescribed by a statute
(B) where a certain period is fixed by agreement of parties
(C) where certain date is fixed by agreement of parties
(D) ail of these.
60. In a valid contract, what from the following, comes first?
(A) enforceability
(B) acceptance
(C) promise
(D) proposal
61. Acceptance to be valid, must be:
(A) absolute
(B) unqualified
(C) absolute and unqualified
(D) conditional.
62. An agreement in restraint of trade is
(A) valid .
(B) voidable
(C) void
(D) unenforceable.
63. Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of:
(A) fraud
(B) misrepresentation
(C) undue influence
(D) free consent.
64. Rescission of contract means:
(A) renewal of the original contract
(B) cancellation of contract
(C) alteration of contract
(D) substitution of the old contract with new.
65. A wagering contract is void under :
(A) Section 28 of Indian Contract Act
(B) Section 29 of Indian Contract Act
(C) Section 30 of Indian Contract Act
(D) Section 31 of Indian Contract Act.
66. Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to:
(A) All persons living within the territory of India
(B) All the citizens of India living in India
(C) All persons domiciled in India
(D) All persons natural as well as artificial.
67. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Article 15(3) of the Constitution prevents the State from making provision for women and children
(B) Nothing in Article 15 of the Constitution shall prevent the State from making provisions for women and children
(C) The State is prevented from making special provision for disabled by Article 15 of the Constitution of India
(D) Special provisions are made for foreign diplomats under Article 15 of the Constitution of India.
68. Which one of the following does not correctly match?
(A) Freedom of speech & expression - includes freedom of press
(B) Freedom of conscience - includes right to wear and carry Kirpan by Sikhs
(C) Right to personal liberty - includes right to carry on any trade or business
(D) Right to equality - includes principles of natural Justice
69. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(A) right to property
(B) right to assemble peacefully
(C) right to move freely throughout the country
(D) right to Constitutional remedies
70. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of
(A) six to fourteen years
(B) five to ten years
(C) five to twelve years
(D) seven to fourteen years.
71. No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than ...........
(A) three months
(B) six months
(C) one year
(D) nine months.
72. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for freedom to manage religious affairs?
(A) Article 26
(B) Article 28
(C) Article 29
(D) Article 30.
73. Which of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial or quas/-judicial authorities?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo warranto.
74. One of the objectives of Directive Principles of State policy is:
(A) prohibition of liquor
(B) prevention of cow slaughter
(C) protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife
(D) prevention of gambling.
75. Which of the following is the fundamental duty of every citizen of India?
(A) To be truthful to one's duties
,(B) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of children
(C) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of human beings
(D) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
