Previous Year Question Papers · Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service (Pre.) Exam., 2022

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service (Pre.) Exam., 2022

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1. From which of the following Harappan Civilization sites, we find evidences of water conservation?

(a) Lothal

(b) Kalibanga

(d) Dholavira

2. On the bank of which river "the battle often kings" mentioned in Rigveda, took place?

(a) Parushni

(b) Sutudri

(d) Vitasta

3. The term 'Hindustan' was used for the first time in the inscriptions of which dynasty?

(a) Mauryan

(b) Sassanian

(d) Mughal

4. Match list - I with list - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List-I List-Il

(Harappan site) (Crop)

(A) Chanhudaro (1) Sesame

(B) Harappa (2) Kodo

(D) Hulas (4) Mustard

Code-

(a)A-1,B-2,C--3,D-4

(b) A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3

(d) A-3, B-2,C-4,D-1

5. Which of the following rulers of the Chola dynasty assumed the title of 'Shhpad Shekhar'?

(a) Rajraja-I

(b) Parantaka-I

(d) Rajendra - II

6. Consider the following foreign travellers and arrange them in chronological order —

(I) l-Tsing

(II) Al-Baruni

(III) Fa-Hien

(IV) Yuan-Chwang

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(a) I, II, III, Iv

(b) iv, III, II, I

(d) Iv, II, III, I

7. Which of the following (Dynasty — Founder) is not correctly matched?

(a) Sangam — Harihar-I

(b) Tuluva — Krishnadeva Raya

(d) Aravidu —Tirumala

8. The meaning of 'Deh' in Mughal period was -

(a) District

(b) Commissioner

(d) None of these

9. Which of the following foreign travellers has mentioned the legend of 'Anarkali'?

(a) Ralph Fitch

(b) William Hawkins

(d) Sir Thomas Roe

10. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Band — Messenger

(b) Sadaka — Charity

(d) Sarkhel — Chief of Infantry

11. Which of the following (Revolts during Shah Jahan's Reign — Leader of the Revolt) is not correctly matched?

(a) Revolt of Kangra — Jagat Singh

(b) Revolt of Bundelkhand — Champat Ral

(d) Tibet Revolt — Abdal

12. Which of the following Sultans of Delhi imposed 'Jizya tax' on Brahmins for the first time?

(a) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

(b) Firoz Shah lughlaq

(d) Aram Shah

13. With reference to the Delhi Sultanate which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) Qutub minar was dedicated to the Sufi saint, Qutb-ud-din Bakhtiyar Kaki.

(2) The tower was damaged by lightening in 1369.

Select the correct answer using the Code given

below-

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Who was the author of 'Tabaqat-i-Akbari'?

(a) Bhimsen Kayasth

(b) Badauni

(d) Nizamuddin

15. 'Gizali' was the famous writer during whose Period?

(a) Balban

(b) Alauddin Khalji

(d) Jahangir

16. Which of the following texts was translated into Persian under the title 'Bahr-ul-Asmar' during the reign of Akbar?

(a) Panchatantra

(b) Arthashastra

(d) Yoga Vasistha

17. The 'Therigatha' in Buddhist literature is related to which of the following bodies?

(a) Majjhima —Nikaya

(b) Samyukta — Nikaya

(d) Khuddaka — Nikaya

18. With reference to the Puranas, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Vishnu Purana is considered more reliable for the history of Mauryans.

(2) Matsya Purana is considered more reliable for the history of Andhras.

Select the correct answer using the code given below -

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Originally 'Bhagwat Geeta' is part of which Parva of Mahabharat ?

(a) Bhishma Parva

(b) Drona Parva

(d) Anushasan parva

20. In which of the following literary works, some parts are found from the architectural work namely 'Adhai Din Ka ihonpra'?

(a) Prithviraj Vijay

(b) Harikeli Natak

(ci) Kirti Kaumudi

21. Who said for the first time about the Indian National Congress that, "it is representing only a microscopic minority class"?

(a) Lord Dufferin

(b) Lord Curzon

(d) Lord Irwin

22. With reference to the French East India Company, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) French East India Company was founded in 1664.

(2) The first French Factory in India was established in Pondicherry.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. Match list — I with list — II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists -

List—I List—Il

(Newspaper) (Language)

(A) Comrade (1) Bengali

(B) Navjivan (2) English

(D) Sulabh Samachar (4) Tamil

Code:

(a) A-2, B-3,C-4,D-1

(b) A-3, B-2,C-1,D-4

(d) A-4, B-3,C-2,D-1

24. Who was the author of 'The Philosophy of the Bomb'?

(a) Bhagat Singh

(b) Bhagwati Charan Vohra

(d) Rash Behari Bose

25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason(R)

Assertion (A) : Bhagat Singh, completely and consciously, was a secular thinker.

Reason (R): He used to say that, "Communalism is also as big enemy as the British colonialism and we have to face it."

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Both (R) and (A) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (R) and (A) are true and but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

26. In which city of United Provinces (presently Uttar Pradesh) a meeting of the revolutionaries from all parts of India was called in 1924?

(a) Lucknow

(b) Meerut

(d) Kanpur

27. Which of the following was the main objective of the 'Eka movement' in Awadh?

(a) Non-payment of taxes

(b) Protection of the rights of landlords

(d) Opposition of the British Rule

28. To whom Lord Mountbatten called 'One-Man Boundary Force'?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Vallabh Bhai Pátel

(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

29. "India, that is Bharat, shall be Union of States", (Indian Constitution). The word 'Union' is derived from the Constitution of which country?

(a) U.S.A.

(b) Switzerland

(d) Australia

30. Which of the following pairs (Act — Year) is not correctly matched under the Constitution of India?

(a) Hindu Succession Act — 1956

(b) Hindu Marriage Act — 1955

(d) Jammu & Kashmir Re-organisation Act — 1918

31. Traditionally 'Zero Hour' in the Parliament of India begins at -

(a) At 9:00 A.M.

(b) At 10:00 A.M.

(d) At 12:00 Noon

32. In such situation, when the Speaker has to vacate his seat in the State Legislative Assembly, he will submit his resignation in his own handwriting with signatures to whom among the following?

(a) Governor of the State

(b) Chief Minister of the State

(d) Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly

33. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding appointment of District Judges in India?

(1) They are appointed by the Governor of the State only.

(2) They are appointed by the Governor of the State with consultation of the State High Court.

Select the answer using the code given below -

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(a) To protect and improve the natural environment.

(b) To strive towards abolition of untouchability.

(d) To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.

35. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution is related to the 'Uniform Civil Code'?

(a) Article 41

(b) Article 42

(d) Article 44

36. Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:

(I) Sajjan Singh Case

(II) Berubari Case

(Ill) Golaknath Case

(IV) Kesavananda Bharati Case

Select the correct answer using the code given

below-

(a) II, I, III, IV

(b) I, II, IV, Ill

(d) Iv, Ill, I, II

37. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is related to the power of the President of granting Pardon?

(a) Article 72

(b) Article 78

(d) Article 81

38. Which of the following (State — Number of Members in Lok Sabha) is not correctly matched?

(a) Gujarat-26

(b) Jharkand-16

(d) Himachal Pradesh-4

39. Which of the following is a court of record?

(a) Supreme Court

(b) High Court

(d) Lower Courts

40. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides provision for a Public Services Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each state?

(a) Article 312

(b) Article 315

(d) Article 320

41. From which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court has enumerated the Right to Livelihood, Right to Privacy, Right to Dignity and Right to Hearing?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 20

(d) Article 22

42. Who said that, "The Directive Principles of the State Policy are the onlypious aspirations of the noble souls"?

(a) Ivor Jennings

(b) K.C. Wheare

(d) Lord Acton

43. Match list — I with list — II and select the correct answer using the code given below —

List —I

(A) Part XV of Constitution

(B) Part XVII of Constitution

(D) Part XX of Constitution

List —Il

(1) Official Language

(2) Elections

(3) Amendment of Constitution

(4) Emergency Provisions

Code -

(a) (A)-2,(B)-3,(C)-4,(D)-1

(b) (A)-2,(B)-1,(C)-4,(D)-3

(ci) (A)-1,(B)-4,(C)-2,(D)-3

44. Which of the following (Part of Indian Constitution — Subject) is not correctly matched?

(a) Part—Il — Citizenship

(b) Part—Ill — Fundamental Rights

(d) Part—V — Fundamental Duties

45. Who was the founder of 'Republican Party of India'?

(a) Charu Majumdar

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Rammanohar Lohiya

46. Public Accounts Committee has the following members: (Give the correct answer) -

(a) (Lok Sabha) - 11, (Rajya Sabha) - 05, (Total) - 16

(b) (Lok Sabha) - 15, (Rajya Sabha) - 07, (Total) - 22

(d) (Lok Sabha) - 17, (Rajya Sabha) - 10, (Total) - 27

47 With reference to the reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj institutions, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) It is provided in the Article 243D (3) of the Indian Constitution.

(2) The reservation shall cease to have effect on the expiration of the period specified in Article 334.

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

48. The Autonomous District Council under the 6th Schedule of the Constitution of India is not operative to which of the following states of North East India?

(a) Assam

(b) Tripura

(d) Meghalaya

49. Which one amongst the following rivers flows through a rift valley?

(a) Mahanadi

(b) Tungabhadra

(d) Tapi

50. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List—I

(Shifting Agriculture)

(A) Ponam

(B) Beera

(D) Podu

List—Il

(State)

(1) Odisha

(2) Kerala

(3) Madhya Pradesh

(4) Assam

Code:

(a) (A)-1,(B)-2,(C)-3,(D)4

(b) (A)-2,(B)-3,(C)-4,(D)1

(d) (A)-4,(B)-1,(C)-3,(D)2

51. Which of the following 'Panchnad'?

(a) Sutlej

(b) Beas

(d) Jhelum

52. Which one of the following (Railway Zone —Headquarters) is not correctly matched?

(a) South Central Railway — Bengaluru

(b) South — East Central Railway — Bilaspur

(d) West Central Railway—Jabalpur

53 Which of the following (Mines — State) is not correctly matched?

(a) Dantewada—Madhya Pradesh

(b) Sandur— Karnataka

(d) Bailadila — Chhattisgarh

54. Which of the following (BioSphereResee5—State) is not correctly matched?

(a) Seshachalam—Andhra Pradesh

(b) Cold Desert— Himachal Pradesh

(d) Kanchenjunga—Sikkim

55. Which one of the following Bioreserves of India is not included in the World Network of Bioreserves?

(a) Manas

(b) Nilgiri

(d) Nandadevi

56. Match list — I with list — II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List—I

(Mines)

(A) Khetri

(B) Giridih

(D)Koraput

List—Il

(Minerals)

(1) Bauxite

(2) Copper

(3) Coal

(4) Iron Ore

Code:

(a) (A)-2,(B)-3,(C)-4,(D)-1

(b) (A) -2,(B)-4, (C) -1,(D) 3

(d) (A)-1,(B)-2,(C)-3,(D)-4

57. Which of the following states does not share its border with Bhutan?

1 Sikkim

2 West Bengal

3 Assam

4 Meghalaya

Select the correct answer from the code given

below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 4 only

58. Which of the following (Multipurpose Project — River) is not correctly matched?

(a) Thein—Ravi

(b) Salal — Chenab

(d) Bansagar—Son

59. Which of the following is not a Hydo — Power based project?

(a) Koldam

(b) Rammam

(d) Jhanor

60. Which of the following petroleum producing area is not located in the state of Gujarat?

(a) Navagam

(b) Kosamba

(d) Moran

61. Which of the following (Pass — State/Union Territory) is not correctly matched?

(a) Banihal —Jammu & Kashmir

(b) Debsa — Himachal Pradesh

(d) Chang La—Sikkim

62. Which of the following (Research Institute — Location) is not correctly matched?

(a) Forest Research Institute — Dehradun

(b) Arid Forest Research Institute — Jodhpur

(d) Himalyan Forest Research Institute — Shimla

63. Which is India's first 14-Lane Expressway?

(a) Mumbai - Pune Expressway

(b) Agra - Lucknow Expressway

(d) Yamuna Expressway

64. How many states of India are situated along the coastline?

(a) 9

(b) 10

(d) 12

65. In which of the following rivers is the 'Majuli River Island' situated?

(a) Ganga

(b) Brahmaputra

(d) Krishna

66. On which of the following hills-range is 'Doddabetta' peak situated?

(a) Nilgiri Hills

(b) Anaimalai Hills

(d) Cardamom Hills

67. Which of the following lakes is shared by two States of India?

(a) Pulicat

(b) Chilka

(d) Sambhar

68. Which of the following sentence(s) is/are correct?

(1) Natural gas occurs in Gondwana beds.

(2) Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.

(3) Dharwar rocks are famous for petroleum.

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(a) Onlyl&2

(b) Only2

(d) Only 1 & 3

69. PMI Index shows trends in which of the following sectors?

(1) Service

(2) Manufacturing

(3) Agriculture

(4) Export

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

70. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List-I (Scheme)

(A) SMILE

(B) SEHAT

(D) SARTHAQ

List-Il (Union Ministry)

(1) Defence

(2) Housing & Urban Affairs

(3) Education

(4) Social Justice & Empowerment

Code -

(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

71. Which of the following committee incorporated for the first time private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty in India?

(a) Lakdawala Committee

(b) Rangarajan Committee

(d) Tendulkar Committee

72. From 1 April, 2022 what surcharge has been levied on Long-Term capital gain on all types of assets?

(a) 7.5 Percent

(b) 10 Percent

(d) 15 Percent

73. After the US Dollar-denominated debt, which of the following currency-denominated debt is the second largest component in India's external debt at the end of December 2021?

(a) SDR.

(b) Indian Rupee

(ci) Euro

74. In which the state, world's first Nano-Urea Plant C) has be elilb augurated by P.M. Narendra Modi?

(a) Haryana

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Gujarat

75. Accordirg to the Union Budget 2022-23, how much total exenditure has been estimated?

(a)34.83 Lakh Crore (b) 37.70 Lakh Crore

76. Which !:the following is/are correct goals to India's àspirations in 'Amrit kaal' for the Union Budget 2022-23?

I- Focus on growth and all-inclusive welfare

II- Promoting technology-enabled development

(a) Only l

(b) Only ll

(d) Neither I nor II

77. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below —

List-I

(Yàjana)

A- Atmanirbhar Bharat

B- PM-WAN I

C- PM-KUSUM

D- Ayushman Bharat

List-lI (Year)

1- 2019

2- Dec. 2020

3- 2018

4- Nov 2020

Code—

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(b) A-4, B-3,D-1

(d) A-i, B-4, C-3, D-2

78. Which of the following Committee was not related to the consolidation of Public Sector Banks?

(a) Narasimhan Committee

(b) Leeladhar Committee

(d) Nayak Committee

79 Poverty estimation in India is carried out by

(a) National Planning Commission

(b) NITI Aayog's Task Force

(d) National Poverty Commission

80. Which of the following schemes was not launched

(a) PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana

(b) PM Suraksha Bima Yojana

(d) Atal Pension Yojana

81. Primary deficit is measured by which of the following?

(a) Revenue Receipts — Revenue Expenditure

(b) Capital Receipts — Interest Payment

(d) Fiscal Receipts — Interest Payment

82. Which of the following is/are example(s) of transfer payments?

1. Unemployment allowance

2. Payment of salary

3. Social security payment

4. Old age pension

Select the correct answer from the code given

below—

Code-

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1,3and4

83. In which year, Indian Rupee was devalued twice within a month?

(a) 1990

(b) 1991

(d) 1993

84. Which of the following curve represents the relationship between tax rates and government revenue?

(a) Lorenz curve

(b) Philips curve

(d) Griffith curve

85. Which of the following (Bank name — Headquarters) is not correctly matched?

(a) Indian Bank—Chennai

(b) ICICI Bank—Mumbai

(d) Canara Bank — Bengaluru

86. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Statistics Day — 29 June

(b) World Anti-Corruption Day — 01 July

(d) Panchayati Raj Day — 04 August

87. Recommendations of 15th Finance Commission are for which of the following periods?

(a) 2019-20 to 2023-24

(b) 2020 — 21 to 2024 — 25

(d) 2022-23 to 2026-27

88. Which of the following industry is a service sector industry?

(a) Insurance

(b) Banking

(d) Education

89. Which of the following is not U.P. Government Budgetary plan priority during 2022-23?

(a) Two free LPG cylinders in a year

(b) Financial assistance under Kanya Sumangala Scheme

(d) Financial support to set up Borewells, Ponds and Tubewells to small & marginalized farmers

90. Which of the following is not a component - indicator of measuring Global Hunger Index Score?

(a) Child stunting

(b) Under-nourishment

(d) Infant mortality rate

91. Which district of India to have the first 'Amrit Sarovar' completed at National level?

(a) Varanasi, U.P.

(b) Amravati, Maharashtra

(d) Rampur, UP.

92. Which among the following is author of the book 'Tomb of Sand' for which he/she was awarded International Booker Prize — 2022?

(a) Nirmal Verma

(b) Dhananjay Verma

(d) Dan Brown

93. In which of the following countries, Prime Minister Narendra Modi gave a call "Bharat Chalo, Bharat se Judo"?

(a) Russia

(b) Japan

(d) U.S.A.

94. What is the name of the digital platform that Supreme Court of India has started to convey its interim, stay and bail orders quickly?

(a) FASTER

(b) MAXIMA

(d) PEGASUS

95. What is the theme of 5th International Day of Yoga?

(a) Yoga for health

(b) Yoga for harmony & peace

(d) Yoga for humanity

96. Where is W.H.O. Global Centre for Traditional Medicine going to be established in India?

(a) Jaipur

(b) Delhi

(d) Jamnagar

97. Jan Samarth Portal is related to which of the following?

(a) PM Jan Arogya Yojana

(b) SATAT Scheme

(d) Credit Linked Govt. Schemes

98. Which of the following (Classical Singer - Gharana) is not correctly matched?

(a) Prabha Atre - Kirana

(b) Pt. Chhannulal Mishra - Patiala

(d) Birju Maharaj - Kalka-Bindadin

99. Which of the Indian workers received 'WHO Global Health Leaders Award 2022'?

(a) ASHA Workers

(b) POLIO Workers

(d) Covid-19 Health Workers

100. Which Indian documentary film has received an Oscar nomination in 2022?

(a) Minding the Gap

(b) Forever Young

(d) Writing with Fire

101. With reference to the Sexual Harassment of Women at work place (Prevention, Prohibition & Redressal) Act, 2015, which of the following (Particulars - Section) is not correctly matched?

(a) Determination of compensation - 15

(b) Inquiry Report -17

(d) Power to remove difficulties - 30

102. Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order -

(I) The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act

(II) Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act

(Ill) The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act

(IV) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(a) I, Il, III & IV

(b) IV, I, III, & II

(d) IV, II, III & I

103. In which of the following year, 'The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act' was passed?

(a) 2003

(b) 2005

(d) 2009

104. Section-23 the Domestic Violence Act provides -

(a) Protection of action taken in good faith

(b) Compensation orders

(d) Power of grant interim and exparte orders

105. What are the objectives of Pre-Conception and Pre Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act, 1994?

(a) To prevent female foeticide

(b) To control the declining sex ratio in India

(d) None of the above

106. How many years of punishment is there for the first time offence of provisions prescribed in Section-23 of Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act of 1994?

(a) Imprisonment of 3 years

(b) Imprisonment of 5 years

(d) Imprisonment of 1 year

107. In which year, 'The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act' was passed?

(a) 2010

(b) 2011

(d) 2013

108. Who is child under 'The Protection of Children from Sexual Offence Act'?

(a) Before the Age. ol 15 years

(b) Before the Age of 16 years

(d) Before the Age of 20 years

109. For the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MIP) of adult women, whose consent is mandatory?

(a) Only the woman concerned

(b) The woman and the father of the unborn

(d) The woman and her In-Laws

110. At which place the pregnancy cannot be terminated under the rule of Section-4 of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1971?

(a) At hospital established by Government

(b) At hospital maintained by Government

(d) None of the above

111. Which is not true about the 'Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act'?

(a) it was passed in 1986.

(b) It is extended to the whole of India.

(d) All of the above

112. Under the 'Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act 1986', how much punishment is prescribed for second conviction?

(a) Imprisonment upto 1 years and fine upto 1000

(b) Imprisonment upto 2 years and fine upto '2000

(d) Imprisonment for not less than 6 months to 5 years and fine not less than ' 10,000 to 1,00,000

113. Who can establish Old Age Home according to the Law?

(a) State Government

(b) Central Government

(d) None of the above

114. Who among the following is liable for maintenance under the 'Maintenance & Welfare óf Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007'?

(a) Son

(b) Son and Grandson

(d) All of the above

115. When was the Charitable Endowment Act passed?

(a) 1890

(b) 1990

(d) 1980

116. The accounts of the state fund for persons with disabilities shall be audited by the -

(a) Comptroller

(b) Auditor-General

(d) None of the above

117. When did the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 came into force?

(a) 1st April, 1961

(b) 115h March, 1961

(d) 23rd April, 1961

118. What is the maximum punishment prescribed for demanding dowry under Section-4 of the 'Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961'?

(a) 2 years Imprisonment

(b) 3 years Imprisonment

(d) 7 years Imprisonment

119. How many types of disabilities were included in the Act prior to the 'Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016'?

(a) 7

(b) 8

(d) 10

120. In which of the following judgements Hon'ble Supreme Court directed the Bar Council of India to ensure compliance of the Section-32 of 'Right of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016' in Law colleges?

(a) Vikas Kumar V/s U.P.S.C. 2021

(b) Vidhi H. Kataria & others V/s State of Gujarat & others 2019

(d) Rajive Raturi V/s Union of India & others 2017

121. Which of the following pairs (International Institutions — Place) is not correctly matched?

(a) UNESCO — Paris

(b) l.L.O. — Geneva

(d) International Criminal Court — The Hague

122. Match list — I with list — Il and choose the correct answer using the code given below —

List —I

(Orbit)

(A) Polar Earth Orbit

(B) Parking Orbit

(D) Geo Synchronous Orbit

List—Il

(Distance above the Equator)

(1)700-800 km

(2) 35,800 km

(3) 500 — 2000 km

(4) 35,785 km

Code —

(a) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2

(b) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-4, (D)-1

(d) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-1

123. Who among the following is currently Vice - President of International Court of Justice?

(a) Joan E. Donoghue

(b) Kirill Gevorgian

(d) Ronny Abraham

124. India's first indigenously developed Remote Sensing Satellite was launched through -

(a) Cape Kennedy

(b) Baikonur

(d) Sriharikota

125. Match list - I with list - II and select the correct answer from the code given below -

List-I

(Military Exercise)

(A) DUSTLIN

(B) Eastern Bridge

(D) LAMITIVE

List-Il

(Countries involved)

(1) India - Oman

(2) India - Seychelles

(3) India - Uzbekistan

(4) India - Kyrgyzstan

Code-

(a) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2

(b) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-2

(d) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4

126. Chandrayaan-2 rover, an electric power generation system, named 'Pragyan', is which of the following?

(a) Six - wheeled robotic vehicle

(b) Four - wheeled robotic vehicle

(d) Ten - wheeled robotic vehicle

127. Identify satellite(s) the unsuccessful in launching -

(1) INRSS-1A

(2) INRSS- lB

(3)INRSS-1G

(4) INRSS - 1H

The correct answer is - which was/were

(a) 1

(b) 1&2

(d) 4

128. Which institution released the report entitled, 'suffering in silence' to highlight the plight of Niger during Covid-19 pandemic period?

(a) World Bank

(b) I.M.F.

(d) UNHCR

129. The proper relation between uplink frequency and low-link frequency in satellite communication is -

(a) Always greater

(b) Always lower

(d) May be greater or lower

130. Which is not true with 5G technology of mobile communication?

(1) Data downloading is faster.

(2) Driver less cars are possible.

(3) Domestic appliances can be controlled withmobile phone.

(4) The existing cell phone can be used.

The correct answer is

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 4

131. Which is not required in a communication system?

(1) Transmitter

(2) Receiver

(3) Antenna

(4) Internet

The correct answer is

(a) 1 & 2

(b) 2 & 3

(d) 4

132. Which is not an advantage of optical communication?

(a) Higher Bandwidth

(b) Higher Speed.

(d) No magnetic noise

133. Which star is/are nearest to our solar system?

(a) Alpha — Centauri

(b) Proxima — Centauri

(d) Affair

134. Match the following nuclear plants with their location and give correct answer from the code given below —

(A) Kalapakkam (1) Gujarat

(B) Narora (2) Maharashtra

(D) Kakrapara (4) Tamil Nadu

Code -

(a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4

(b) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-4

(d) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-4, (0)-1

135. Height of Geostationary Satellite above the earth surface in equatorial orbit is approximately -

(a) 32,000 km (b) 36,000 km

136. 'MODEM' is used for -

(a) AID conversion only

(b) 0/A conversion only

(d) None of the above

137. Which is not a solid state device?

(a) FET

(b) LED

(d) Tunnel diode

138. What is not true about hologram?

(a) It is light source.

(b) It is a 3-0 picture.

(d) It is obtained by laser.

139. Modern TV screen is made of-

(a) Liquid Crystal

(b) Light Emitting Diode

(d) Cathode Ray Tube

140. As the height of satellite above earth surface increases, the time taken to complete the orbit -

(a) Remains same

(b) Decreases

(d) May increase or decrease

141. Electric press, heater, electric kettle etc. are made of which element?

(a) Nichrorne

(b) Carbon

(d) German Silver

142. The concept of environment is based on which of the following?

1. Environmental Degradation

2. Dimensions of totality of environment

3. Shift in the interest

4. Globality

Correct answer is -

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) land 2

143. Match list - I with list - Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List—I List—lI

(Characteristics) (Particles)

(A) Zero Mass (1) Positron

(B) Fractional charge (2) Neutrino

(D) Integral spin (4) Photon

Code-

(a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

(d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

144. Which of the following viruses was assessed to be responsible for highly infectious disease of small pox?

(a) Blue Origin

(b) Variola virus

(d) Coxsackie virus

145. What is the name of the Aerospace company owned biIIionair Jeff Bezos?

(a) Blue Origin

(b) Space-X

(d) Dragon

146. Which international organization has launched"Covid-19 Vaccine Market Dash Board"?

(a) World Bank

(b) l.M.F.

(d) F.A.O.

147. "AIlPOIP Grant Programme" has been launched by Australia in partnership with which of the following countries?

(a) India

(b) Jamaica

(d) Nicaragua

148. "Brucellosis" is a disease caused by

(a) Virus

(b) Bacteria

(ci) Fungus

149. Indian robot namely 'Vyommitra' was developed by -

(a) C-DAC, Pune

(b) I.S.R.O.

(d) D.R.D.O.

150. Which Indian Institution has developed 'Intensive Care Unit' (lCU) grade ventilator under the name of 'Project Praana'?

(a) AIIMS, Delhi

(b) lIT, Kharagpur

(d) IISC, Bengaluru

LAW

1. Which one of the following principles is laid down in the case of Rajesh Kant Roy vs. Shanti Debi?

(a) Principles of Part Performance

(b) Principles of us Pendens

(d) Principles of Contingent interest

2. Within the meaning of Section 51 of TP Act, the transferee -

(a) is not entitled to the value of improvements

(b) is entitled to the value of improvements

(d) None of the above

3. When transfer of Property by the owner is dissented under Section 35 of Transfer of Property, under which circumstances compensation should be given to disappointed transferee?

(1) Where the transfer is gratuitous and the transferor has, before the election, died or otherwise become incapable of making a fresh transfer.

(2) Where the transfer is gratuitous and the transferor is, before the election, alive.

(3) When the transfer is for consideration and the transferor has, before the election died.

(4) When the transfer is for consideration and the transferor is, before the election, alive.

Select the correct answer -

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) Only 2, 3, 4

(d) Only 1,3,4

4. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below —

List—I

(A) Doctrine of Subrogation

(B) Doctrine of Consideration

(D) Doctrine of Lis pendens

List —II

(1) Section 17 TPA

(2) Section 52 TPA

(3) Section 61 TPA

(4) Section 92 TPA

Code -

(a) A-4, B-3, C-I, D-2

(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(d) A-3, 8-2, C-I, D-4

5. Legal terminology 'Res Nullius' is used for -

(a) property of certain person

(b) ownerless property

(d) None of the above

6. Which one of the following is not the essential element of sale?

(a) Seller and buyer

(b) Without consideration

(d) None of the above

7. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Sale

(B) Marshalling

(D) Contingent interest

List—Il

(1) Section 21

(2) Section 122

(3) Section 54

(4) Section 81

Code -

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

8. Under which of the following conditions, Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable?

(a) Where the transfer is by the way of Lease.

(b) Where the transfer is by the way of exchange.

(d) Where the transfer is by the way of sale.

9. Which of the following instruments have been excluded by the application of Section 137 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ?

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(1) Stocks

(2) Shares

(3) Debentures

Code -

(a) All 1, 2, and 3

(b) Only 1 and 2

(d) Only 1 and 3

10. Which one of the following Section of Transfer of Property Act relates to 'oral transfer'?

(a) Section 5

(b) Section 7

(d) Section 9

11. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List-I

(A) Holding over

(B) Universal donee

(0) Purchases

List-Il

(1) Mortgage

(2) Gift

(3) Lease

(4) Sale

Code -

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

(d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

12. Match list-I with list-Il and select the' correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List-I

(A) Part performance

(B) Conditional Transfer

(0) Implied contracts by mortgagor

List II

(1) Section 65 TPA

(2) Section 53A TPA

(3) Section 69ATPA

(4) Section 25 TPA

Code-

(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, 0-i

(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, 0-1

(d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

13. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(a) What may be transferred - Section 6 of TPA

(b) Oral transfer - Section 9 of TPA

(d) Joint transfer for consideration - Section 45 of TPA

14. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Fraudulent transfer

(B) Election when necessary

(ID.) Conditional transfer

List—Il

(1) Section 14 TPA

(2) Section 35 TPA

(3) Section 25 TPA

(4) Section 53 TPA

Code -

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

15. Assertion (A): Transfer in perpetuity is allowed' for the benefit of public.

Reason (R): Welfare of public at large is above the welfare of individual.

(a) A & R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) A & R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) R is true but A is false

16. Which one of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related with the 'Presumption as to electronic agreements'?

(a) Section 8iA

(b) Section 85C

(d) Section 85A

17. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 how many witness are required for the proof of any fact?

(a) At least one

(b) At least two

(d) Not specified

18. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List-1

(A) Electronic Records

(B) Opinion as to digital signature

(D) Presumption as to digital messages

List-li

(1) Section 47A Indian Evidence Act

(2) Section 88A Indian Evidence Act

(3) Section 22A Indian Evidence Act

(4) Section 67A Indian Evidence Act

Code -

(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

19. Match list-I with list-li and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List-I

(A) Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act

(B) Section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act

(D) Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act

List-li

(i) Opinion of Examiner on Electronic Evidence

(2) Admission in Civil cases when relevant

(3) Presumption as to Power of Attorney

(4) Expert opinion

Code -

(a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

(b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

(d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

20. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Matrimonial communication - Section i22 Indian Evidence Act

(b) Confidential communication with Legal Advisors - Section i27 Indian Evidence Act

(d) Professional communication - Section 126 Indian Evidence Act

21. "A Barrister is instructed by an Attorney or Vakil that an important witness is a dacoit. This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dacoit."

This illustration is based on which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

(a) Section 149

(b) Section 153

(d) Section 145.

22. "The statement in order to constitute a 'Confession' under the Indian Evidence Act, must either admit in terms the offence or at any rate substantially all the facts which constitute the offence."

The above view was expressed by the Privy Council in which one of the following case?

(a) Q.E. vs. Abdullah

(b) H.H.B. Gill vs. King Emperor

(d) John Makin vs. Attorney General

23. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Presumption as to documents thirty years old Section 90 Indian Evidence Act

(b) Order of Examinations — Section 138 Indian Evidence Act

(d) Official Communications — Section 124 India n Evidence Act

24. If a witness, who is unable to speak, gives hi S evidence in writing in the open court, evidence given shall be deemed to be -

(a) documentary

(b) primary evidence evidence

(d) secondary evidence

25. Read the following statements carefully -

A. The presumption of legitimacy of child i 5 governed by Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act.

B. Narendra Nath Pahari vs. Ram Govind Pahari is a leading case on the legitimacy of a child born during the continuance of valid marriage.

From the above -

(a) A is true but B is false

(b) A is false but B is true

(d) Both A and B are false

26. Presumption as to electronic record of five year old is

(a) Presumption of Fact

(b) Presumption of Law

(d) Conclusive proof

27. Match list-I with list-Il and give correct answer by using the code given below the lists -

List-I

(A) Primary evidence

(B) Public document

(D) Secondary evidence

List-Il

(1) Section 74 Indian Evidence Act

(2) Section 75 Indian Evidence Act

(3) Section 62 Indian Evidence Act

(4) Section 63 Indian Evidence Act

Code -

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

(d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

28. Which one of the following Provision of the Indian Evidence Act is not matched?

(a) Section 4 - May Presume, Shall Presume, Conclusive Proof

(b) Section 5 - Evidence may be given of facts in issues and relevant facts

(d) Section 45 - Opinion of experts

29. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists -

List-I

(A) Hostile witness

(B) Dying Declaration

(D) Leading Questions

List-Il

(1) Section 159 Indian Evidence Act

(2) Section 32(1) Indian Evidence Act

(3) Section 154 Indian Evidence Act

(4) Section 141 Indian Evidence Act

Code -

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(d) A-2,B-3, C-1, D-4

30. 'Identification proceedings' are provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

(a) Section —7

(b) Section —8

(d) Section — 11

31. Match list—I with list—Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Interpretation Clause

(B) When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant

(D) Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction

List—Il

(1) Section 6 Indian Evidence Act

(2) Section 105 Indian Evidence Act

(3) Section 11 Indian Evidence Act

(4) Section 3 Indian Evidence Act

Code -

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

(d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

32. In which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the fact showing the knowledge is declared relevant?

(a) Section — 8

(b) Section — 9

(d) Section — 14

33. Consider the following events and arrange them into chronological order -

I. Cross examination

II. Examination ifl chief

III. Re-examination

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

Code -

(a) I, II and III

(b) II, I and Ill

(d) II, III and I

34. The evidence may be given of following facts —

(1) Facts in issue

(2) Relevant fact

Select the correct answer using the code given below—

Code-

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Assertion (A): Admission is only prima fade proof.

Reason (R): Admission is not a conclusive proof but it may operate as an estopple.

(a) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) R is true but A is false

36. The Cardinal Principle of Criminal Law 'Nullum Crimen Nulia Poena Sine Lege' means -

(a) no crime of punishment can exist without preexisting Criminal Law

(b) a man is presumed to be innocent until proven guilty

(d) ignorance of fact is excused

37. Match list—I with list—lI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Section 146 IPC

(B) Section 340 IPC

(D) Section 383 IPC

List—Il

(1) Fabricating False Evidence

(2) Extortion

(3) Rioting

(4) wrongful confinement

Code -

(a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

38. 'A' commits theft on the property in the possession of 'B' and while committing theft 'A' has a loaded pistol under his garments, kept for the purpose of hurting 'B' in case if 'B' resist.

The offence committed by 'A' is defined under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(a) Section 382

(b) Section 381

(d) Section 390

39. Which of the following pair is not matched?

(a) Extortion-Section 383 IPC

(b) Dacoity-Sectjon 391 IPC

(d) Theft-Section 378 lPC

40. Consider the following activities & arrange them into chronological ascending order as per relevant Sections of the Indian Penal Code.

I. Sedition

II. House Tresspass

Ill. Communication made in good faith

IV. Public Nuisance

Select the correct answer using the code given

below—

Code -

(a) Ill, I, lV, II

(b) Ill, IV, I, II

(d) lV, II, I, Ill

41. The expression 'disaffection' used in Section 124-A of the Indian Penal Code includes -

(a) disloyalty only

(b) disloyalty and all feeling of enemity

(d) hatred or contempt

42. Assertion (A): A is a child of nine years. He intentionally killed B. A may be proved guilty.

Reason (R): Child below the age of !welve year exempted from criminal liability.

Select the correct answer -

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

43. A hangman, who hang the prisoners pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of-

(a) Section 77 lPC

(b) Section 73 IPC

(d) Section 76 IPC

44. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists —

List—I

A. Causing death by negligence.

B. Dowry death

C. Abetment to suicide

D. Attempt to commit suicide

List—Il

1. Section 309 IPC

2. Section 306 IPC

3. Section 304A IPC

4. Section 304B IPC

45. Which of the following case is related to thedefence of necessity?

(a) D.P.P. vs. Beard

(b) R. vs. Dudley and Stephen

(d) caseofMc'Naughten

46. Arrange the following in the chronological ascending order as per relevant Sections of the India Penal Code —

I. Document

Ii. Fraudulently

Ill. Dishonestly

IV. Public Servant

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) IV, Ill, Ii and I

(b) lii, II, l\I and

(d) II, Ill, I and IV

47. In executing a sentence of solitary confinement,such confinement shall in no case exceed, how many days at a time?

(a) 7 days

(b) 14 days

(d) 01 month

48. Assertion (A): The Indian Penal Code contains certain exemptions from criminal liability.

Reason (R): These cannot be universal criminal liability in all circumstances.

Select the correct answer -

(a) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

49. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Section 124A IPC — Criminal conspiracy

(b) Section 340 IPC —Wrongful confinement

(d) Section 354C JPC—Stalking

50. Match List—I with List—Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

A. Section 463 IPC

B. Section 445 IPC

C. Section 441 IPC

D. Section 503 IPC

List—Il

1. Criminal tresspass

2. Forgery

3. Criminal intimidation

4. House breaking

Code-

(a) (A)-2, (B)-4, (c)-1, (D)-3

(b) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-3, (D)-1

(d) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3

51. Which of the following is not an element of crime?

(a) Human being

(b) Mensrea

(d) Object

52. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using code given below the lists -

List-I

A. 120A

B. 124A

C. 295A

D. 354C

List-Il

1. Sedition

2. Voyeurism

3. Criminal conspiracy

4. Deliberate and Malicious Acts intended to outrage religious feelings or any class by insulting religious belief or religion. '

Code -

(a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4

(b) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3

(d) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-2

53. 'A' is a national champion of swimming in pond. He could have saved the child, but did not do so. The child drowned. Is 'A' guilty of -

(a) murder

(b) abetment of Suicide

(d) no offence

54• Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List-I

A. Delivery of property

B. Taking of property

C. Entrustment of property

D. Converti'bility of property got innocently to one's own use

List-Il

1. Criminal breach of trust

2. Criminal misappropriation of property

3. Theft

4. Extortion

Code-

(a) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-2

(b) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2

(d) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-4

55. Disclosure of the identity of a rape victim is punishable under the following Section of IPC, 1860-

(a) Section 337

(b) Section 228

(d) Section 228A

56. For the validity of a contract, which of the following elements are necessary?

1. Intention to create legal relationship

2. Knowledge of the offer

3. Writing of the agreement

4. Acceptance of the offer

Select the correct answer using the code given below—

Code -

(a) 2,3&4

(b) 1,3&4

(d) 1,2&3

57. An agreement, the meaning of which is neither certain nor is capable of being certain is -

(a) Void

(b) Illegal

(d) Valid

58. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List—I

A. Section 16 Indian Contract Act

B. Section 71 Indian Contract Act

C. Section 2(d) Indian Contract Act

D. Section 56 Indian Contract Act

List—Il

1. Consideration

2. Agreement to do impossible act

3. Undue influence

4. Finder of goods

Code-

(a) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-]., (D)-4

(b) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-]., (D)-2

(d) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-]., (D)-3

59. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Revocation how made - Section 5 Indian Contract Act

(b) Acceptance must be absolute - Section 6 Indian Contract Act

(d) Responsibility of finder of goods Indian Contract Act Section 10 - Section 71

55. Disclosure of the identity of a rape victim is punishable under the following Section of IPC,

1860-

(a) Section 337

(b) Section 228

(d) Section 228A

56. For the validity of a contract, which of the following elements are necessary?

1. Intention to create legal relationship

2. Knowledge of the offer

3. Writing of the agreement

4. Acceptance of the offer

Select the correct answer using the code given

below—

Code -

(a) 2,3&4

(b) 1,3&4

(d) 1,2&3

57. An agreement, the meaning of which is neither certain nor is capable of being certain is -

(a) Void

(b) Illegal

(d) Valid

58. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List—I

A. Section 16 Indian Contract Act

B. Section 71 Indian Contract Act

C. Section 2(d) Indian Contract Act

D. Section 56 Indian Contract Act

List—Il

1. Consideration

2. Agreement to do impossible act

3. Undue influence

4. Finder of goods

Code-

(a) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-]., (D)-4

(b) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-]., (D)-2

(d) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-]., (D)-3

59. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Revocation how made - Section 5 Indian Contract Act

(b) Acceptance must be absolute - Section 6 Indian Contract Act

(d) Responsibility of finder of goods Indian Contract Act

60. Assertion (A): Agreements enforceable by law are contracts.

Reason (R): Agreements not enforceable by law are void.

Select to, correct answer using the code given below

Code -

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct expation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

61. The cas6.f Tweddle vs. Atkinson is related with

(a) Privrtjof Contract

(b) Impossibility of performance

(d) Antiatory Breach of Contract

62. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists —

List I

(A) FrecdnSent

(B) Misresentation

C) Coercion

(D) Fraud

List—Il

(1) Section 17 Indian Contract Act

(2) Section 15 Indian Contract Act

(3) Section 18 Indian Contract Act

(4) Sectjcm 14 Indian Contract Act

Code -

(a) A-1,B-2, C-3, D-4

(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

63. Under Section 2(C) of Indian Contract Act 'promisee' is the -

(a) Person who makes the proposal.

(b) Person who accepts the proposal.

(d) Person to whom the proposal is made.

64. Which one is the correct sequence from the following as implied in the India Contract Act, 1872?

(A) Offer of proposal

(B) Contract

(D) Agreement

(E) Acceptance

Select the correct answer -

(a) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B) (b) (D), (B), (C), (A), (E)

65. Point out the correct answer -

(a) An agreement enforceable by law is a contract.

(b) An agreement which is not enforceable by law is also a contract.

(d) None of the-above

66. Assertion (A): Invitation to make tenders is not an offer.

Reason (R): A tender in response to such invitation is an offer.

Select the correct answer -

(a) (A) & (R) both are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) & (R) both are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (R) is true but (A) is false

67. When consideration and object of an agreement is partly unlawful under Indian Contract Act, 1872, the agreement is -

(a) Void

(b) Voidable

(d) None of the above

68. 'A' owes 'B' 1000 but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. 'A' signs written promise to pay 'B' 500 on account of the debt. This is a -

(a) Contract

(b) Void contract

(d) Void agreement

69. Match list-I with list-Il and give correct answer by using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Voidable contract

(B) Contract

(D) Consideration

List—Il

(1) Section 2(d) Indian Contract Act

(2) Section 2(g) Indian Contract Act

(3) Section 2(i) Indian Contract Act

(4) Section 2(h) Indian Contract Act

Code -

(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, 0-1

(d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

70. Taylor vs. CaIdwell, 122 ER 309 is a leading case on which topic in Indian Contract Act, 1872?

(a) Doctrine ofFrustration

(b) Doctrine of Necessity

(d) Contingent Contract

71. Which of the following Sections of Code of Civil procedure, 1908 deals with transfer of decree for execution?

(a) Section 42

(b) Section 39

(d) Section 16

72. Arrange the following in the chronological order on the basis of Sections of Civil procedure Code, 1908—

(I) Institutions of Suits

(II) Res Judicata

(III) Legal representative

(IV) Arrest and detention

Select the correct answer -

Code -

(a) I, II, Ill & IV

(b) I, Ill, II & IV

(d) II, Ill, I & IV

73 Which of the following Section in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with settlement of disputes outside the court?

(a) Section 88

(b) Section 89

(d) Section 91

74. Match list-I with list-Il and give correct answer by using the code given below the lists -

List-I

(A) Adjournment

(B) Execution of Decree and orders

(D) Affidavit

List-Il

(1) Order 19 CPC

(2) Order 17 CPC

(3) Order 21CPC

(4) Order7CpC

Code-

(a) A-i, B-2, C-3, 0-4

(b) A-2, B-3, C-4,D-1

(d) A-4, B-2, C-3,D-1,

75. 'Movable Property' under Section 2(13) of the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 includes -

(a) growing trees

(b) buildings

(d) money

76. Section 75 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 provides for -

(a) Issuing Commission for getting opinion

(b) Appointment of executors and administrators

(d) All of the above

77. Match list-I with list-Il and select the answer using the code given below the lists -

List-I

(A) Execution of Decree

(B) Letter of request

(D) Institution of Suit

List-Il

(1) Section 50 CPC

(2) Section 26 CPC

(3) Section 77 CPC

(4) Section 38 CPC

Code -

(a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

78. Provision regarding adjudication of Claims and Objection to attached property is -

(a) Order 21 Rule 58 CPC

(b) Order 21 Rule 59 CPC

(d) None of the above

79. "No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of the parties." It is provided in -

(a) Section 96(1) CPC

(b) Section 96(2) CPC

(d) Section 96(4) CPC

80. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?

(1) interpleader Suit - Order 35 CPC

(2) Judgment and Decree - Order 20 CPC

(3) Withdrawal and Adjustment of Suits - Order 23

(4) Payment into Court- Order 21 CPC

Select the correct answer -

Code -

(a) 1,2and3

(b) 1,2 and4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

81. Devilal Modi vs. STO AIR 1965 SC 1150 is a leading case on which topic?

(a) Stay of Suit

(b) Place of Suit

(d) Interlocutory orders

82. Who has the authority to fix scales of monthly allowances payable for subsistence of judgment debtor?

(a) District Court

(b) State Government

(d) High Court

83. Which of the following suits are of civil nature?

(1) Suits related to Right of Worship.

(2) Suits for rights of hereditary offices.

(3) Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.

(4) Suits for specific relief.

Select the correct answer -

Code -

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

84. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Section 2(2) CPC —Decree

(b) Section 2(9) CPC—Judgement

(d) Section 2(6) CPC — Foreign Judgment

85. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Pleading to state material facts and notevidence.

(2) Amendments of pleadings is provided in orderVI Rule 16ofCPC.

Select the correct answer

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. Which Section of the CPC prohibits arrest or detention of woman in the execution of a decree of money?

(a) Section 55

(b) Section 56

(d) Section 60

87. Match list—I with list—Il and select the correct answer using the code given below —

List—I

(A) Settlement of dispute outside the court

(B) Suit by or against Government

(D) Resistance to execution

List—Il

(1) Section 74 CPC

(2) Section 88 CPC

(3) Section 79 CPC

(4) Section 89 CPC

Code-

(a) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1

(b) (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-1, (D)-3

(d) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-1

88. Order XX — A of the Civil Procedure Code applies to which of the following?

(a) Withdrawl of Suits

(b) Appeal

(d) Judgment

89. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List-I

(1) Section ii CPC

(2) Section 26 CPC

(3) Section 33 CPC

(4) Section 35 B CPC

List-Il

(A) Institution of Suits

(B) Resjudicata

(D) Judgment and Decree

Code -

(a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4

(b) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3

(d) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1

90. Subject to Sub-Section(2) of Section 64 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a private alienation of property after attachment is -

(a) Voidable

(b) Improper

(d) Void

91. Which Section of Cr.P.C. is related to "no unnecessary restraint"?

(a) Section 49

(b) Section 44

(d) Section 43

92. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List-I

(A) Contents of charge

(B) Judgment

(D) Reference to High Court

List-Il

(1) Section 395 Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 25 Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 353 Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 211 Cr.P.C.

Code-

(a) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-1

(b) (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-3, (D)-2

(d) (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-1

93. Where lies the procedure under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, when corporation or registered society is an accused?

(a) Section 319

(b) Section 304

(d) Section 306

94. Match list—I with list—Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List—I

(A) Language of the Court

(B) Compensation to the victim

(D) Inherent powers of High Court

List—Il

(1) Section 482 Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 272 Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 357 Cr.P.C.

(4) 15t Schedule Cr.P.C.

Code -

(a) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-4, (D)-1

(b) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-4

(d) (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-3

95. Which Section of Cr.P.C. has provision for cancellation of warrants?

(a) Section 69

(b) Section 70

(d) None of the above

96. Assertion (A): Inquiry precedes trial.

Reason (R): Trial is the third stage of criminal proceeding.

(a) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

97. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding two years relates to -

(a) Summon cases

(b) Warrant cases

(d) Neither of the above (a) & (b)

98. Match list—I with list—Il and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Arrest by Magistrate

(B) Arrest by private person

(D) Arrest by police officer without warrant

List—Il

(1) Section 41 Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 43 Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 44 Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 46 Cr.P.C.

Code-

(a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4

(b) (A)-3, (B)-2,(C)-4,(D)-1

(d) (A)-3, (B)-2,(C)-1,(D)-4

99. Which one of the following Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that, 'No judge or Magistrate shall try any case in which he is personally interested'?

(a) Section 477

(b) Section 481

(d) Section 479

100. The subject of criminal procedure falls in which one of the following List of the Constitution of India?

(a) Union List

(b) State List

(d) None of the above

101. Arrange the following in the chronological order on the basis of Sections of Criminal Procedure Code —

I- Public prosecutor

II- Special Metropolitan Magistrate

Ill- Special Judicial Magistrate

IV- Court of Session

Select the correct answer using the code given below—

Code -

(a) I, II, Ill and IV

(b) IV, Ill, II and I

(d) I, IV, Ill and II

102. When the accused is aggrieved by the report of the Psychologist as to his unsoundness of mind, he may appeal to —

(a) Magistrate hearing the case

(b) High Court

(d) Session Court

103. Which of the following is not correctly reached?

(a) Trial by High Court — Section 473 ofC1' P.C.

(b) Power of High Court to make rules — Section 477 of Cr. P.C.

(d) Resumption of inquiry or trial — Seio 331 of Cr. P.C.

104. Which Provision of the Cr.P.C. resembles with Habeas Corpus Writ?

(a) Section 91

(b) Section 93

(d) Section 96

105. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Section 44 Cr.P.C. — When police may arrest without warrant

(b) Section 42 Cr.P.C. — Arrest on refusal to give name and residence

(d) Section 43 Cr.P.C. — Arrest how made

106. Who is given protection from art under Section 45 of the Code of Criminal procedure, 1973?

(a) President of India

(b) Members of armed forces

(d) Members of Parliament

107. Match list-I with the list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List-I

(A) Duty to register FIR

(B) Laches in investigation

(D) Delay in examination of witnesses

List-Il

(1) Rajinder Singh Katoch vs. Chandigarh Administration and others

(2) Krishnegowda vs. State of Karnataka

(3) Saidu Mohammed vs. State of Kerala

(4) Surjit Sarkarvs. State of West Bengal

Code-

(a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4

(b) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-3, (D)-4

(d) (A)-3, (B)-1,(C)-2, (D)-4

108. A Session Judge, under Section 9(2) of Cr.P.C. is appointed by the

(a) District Magistrate

(b) State Government

(d) None of the above

109. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List-I

(A) Anticipatory Bail

(B) Cognizance on complaint

(D) Security of good behaviour from habitual offender

List-Il

(1) Section 272 Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 110 Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 438 Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 190 Cr.P.C.

Code-

(a) (A)-2,(B)-4,(C)-1,(D)-3

(b) (A)-1, (B)-3,(C)-4,(D)-2

(d) (A)-3,(B)-4,(C)-1,(D)-2

110. Permission to investigate into a non-cognizable offence can be granted by -

(a) Magistrate first class in any part of India

(b) Magistrate in any part of State

(d) Session Judge

111. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid

(B) Constitution of Parliament

(D) Fundamental Duties

List—U

(1) Article 50

(2) Article 51A

(3) Article 39A

(4) Article 79

Code -

(a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4

(b) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-4, (D)-1

(d) (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-3

112. Which Article of Constitution provides for establishment of 'Goods and Services Tax Council'?

(a) Article 269A

(b) Article 270

(d) Article 279

113. Assertion (A) : Right to Education Fundamental Right

Reason (R) : Our Constitution has no provision for education before making Right to Education as Fundamental Right.

Select the correct answer -

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

114. By the Constitution l03 Amendment Act, 2019. which one of the following Clause was added to Article 16 of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 16 (4-B)

(b) Article 16 (5)

(d) Article 16 (7)

115. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—

List—I

(A) Right against Exploitation

(B) Equal justice and free legal aid

(D)SeatofSupremeCourt

List—Il

(1) Article 39A

(2) Article 130

(3) Article 23-24

(4) Article 72

Code -

(a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4

(b) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-2

(d) (A)-4, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-3

116. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has power to review its own decisions?

(a) Article 136

(b) Article 135

(d) Article 138

117. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—

List—I

(A) Article 43

(B) Article 42

(D) Article 50

List—Il

(1) Separation of Judiciary from Executive

(2) Living wage, etc., for workers

(3) Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief

(4) Uniform Civil Code

Code-

(a) (A)-1,(B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3

(b) (A)2, (B)-3, (C)-4, (D)-1

(d) (A)3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-1

118. ln case of death Of the President in office the Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of-

(a) 1 year

(b) 3 months

(d) 6 months

119. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(a) Short title of Constitution — Article 1

(b) Official language of State — Article 345

(d) Constitution of Parliament — Article 79

120. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Distribution of Legislative power

(B) Organisation of Village Panchayats

(D) Parliamentary privileges

List—Il

(1) Article 40

(2) Article 73

(3) Article 245-255

(4) Article 105

Code -

(a) (A)-3, (B)-i, (C)-2, (D)-4

(b) (A)-4, (B)-1, (C)-2;(D)-3

(d) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4

121. In which case Supreme Court says that, 'Ownership is pre-eminently a right'?

(a) PT. Municchikkanna Reddy vs. Revamma

(b) B. Gangadhar vs. B.C. Rajalingam

(d) None of the above

122. Assertion (A): Custom to have the force of law may not continuously be enjoyed.

Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of people.

Select the correct answer -

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

123. 'The greatest happiness for greatest number' is -

(a) Utilitarian Concept

(b) Realist Concept

(d) Analyst Concept

124. Match list-I and list-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Purpose Theory

(B) Will Theory

(D) Realist Theory

List—Il

(1) Salmond

(2) Gierke

(3) Ihering

(4) Austin

Code-

(a) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-2

(b) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1

(d) (A)-3, (B)-4,(C)-2,(D)-1

125. Which of the following is an exception to the maxim 'Ubi jus ibi remedium'?

(a) Perfect right

(b) Imperfect right

(d) Negative right

126. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Law, Liberty and Morality — Fuller

(b) Social Control through Law — Roscoe Pound

(d) Leviathan — Hobbes

127. The concept of 'Living Law' was expounded by which Jurist?

(a) Ihering

(b) Duguit

(d) Roscoe Pound

128. Match list-I with list-li and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Principal deposits his goods with an agent

(B) Buyer purchases books from the shopkeeper

(D) Author's copyright in his work

List—li

(1) immediate Possession

(2) Mediate Possession

(3) incorporeal Possession

(4) Corporeal Possession

Code -

(a) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3

(b) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3

(d) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-3, (D)-4

129. Who among the following said that witnesses are eyes and ears of justice?

(a) Holland

(b) Bentham

(d) Fuller

130. "Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principle of Law." This statement is of -

(a) Prof. Allen

(b) H.L.A. Hart

(d) Keeton

131. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): International Court of Justice has power to decide cases on the basis of equity.

Reason (R): Equity is one of the general Principle of Law recognised by civilized nations.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

Code -

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

132. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter, the members of United Nations have agreed to abide by the decisions of the Security Council?

(a) Article 25

(b) Article 26

(d) Article 28

133. Match list-I with list-li and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) International Day of Education

(B) World Environment Day

(D) International Mother language

List—Il

(1) 24 January

(2) 05 October

(3) 21 February

(4) 05 June

Code -

(a) (A)-1, (B)-2 (C) -3,(D)-4

(b) (A)-1, (B)-4,(C)-2,(D)-3

(d) (A)-3,(B)-2, (C)-1,(D)-4

134. What was the theme of World Human Right 2021?

(a) Woman Right are Human Rights

(b) Recovers better -Standup for Human Rights

(d) Equality -Reducing inequalities, advancing Human Rights

135 Which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, grant Right to life, liberty and security of person?

(a) Article 1

(b) Article 2

(d) Article 4

136. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) -

Assertion (A): United Nations Charter does not authorise United Nations to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State.

Reason (R): This principle shall not prejudice the enforcement application of measures under chapter VII of the U.N. Charter.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

137: Russian invasion on Ukraine violates which Article of the U.N. Charter?

(a) Article 1 (4)

(b) Article 2 (4)

(d) Article 4 (2)

138. QUAD (Quadilateral Security Dialogue) Summit, 2022 was held at which place?

(a) Japan

(b) Australia

(d) India

139. In November 2021, which of the following has launched a new Journal 'Solar Compass' toenhance research on the use of Solar Power?

(a) United Nations Environment Programme

(b) Global Green Growth Institute

(d) Euro-solar

140. Who can request the International Court of Justice to give advisory opinion on any legal question?

(a) The General Assembly of United Nations

(b) The highest Court of Justice of any Nation

(d) Any member of United Nations

141. Assertion (A): International Organizations play a very important role in maintaining peace.

Reason (R): Countries have conflicts and differences with each other.

Select the correct answer —

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

142. Which of the following executes the decision of International Court of Justice?

(a) Military Staff Committee

(b) General Assembly

(d) Security Council

143. Match list—I with list—Il and give correct answer by using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) Composition of General Assembly

(B) Composition of Security Council

(D) Composition of Trusteeship Council

List—lI

(1) Article 9

(2) Article 61

(3) Article 86

(4) Article 23

Code -

(a) (A)-1,(B)-2,(c)-3,(D)-4

(b) (A)-1,(B)-4,(C)-2,(D)-3

(d) (A)-3,(B)-2,(C)-4,(D)-1

144. The Headquarter of the 'World Intellectual Property Organization' is located in

(a) Paris

(b) Madrid

(d) Geneva

145. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?

(a) Apartheid —Treating all the people as equals

(b) Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice — Sources of International Law

(d) The Seat of International Court of Justice — Paris

146. Which Article of U.N. Charter provides for the - expulsion of the member state?

(b) Article 5

(a) Article 4

(d) Article 7

147. Match list—I with list—Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists —

List—I

A. Article 2(7) U.N. Charter

B. Article 4(2) U.N. Charter

C. Article 33 U.N. Charter

D. Article 36(3) U.N. Charter

List—Il

1. Admission of a State into U.N.

2. Pacific settlement of disputes

3. Legal disputes to be submitted to International Court of Justice

4. Domestic Jurisdiction Clause

Code -

(a) (A)-3,(B)-2,(C)-1,(D)-4

(b) (A)-4,(B)-1,(C)-2,(D)-3

(d) (A)-4,(B)-2,(C)-1,(D)-3

148. The concept of 'Double Veto' has been provisioned under which of the following Article of U.N. Charter?

(a) Article 24

(b) Article 27

(d) Article 29

149. The official language of International Court of justice is -

(a) French and English (b) English and Chinese

150. Match list—I with list—Il and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists —

List—I

(A) UNESCO

(B) LL.O.

(D) l.C.J.

List—Il

(1) Geneva

(2) U.S.A.

(3) Netherland

(4) Paris

Code -

(a) (A)-1,(B)-2,(c)-3,(D)-4

(b) (A)-4,(B)-1,(C)-2,(D)-3

(d) (A)-1,(B)-4,(C)-2,(D)-3