1. ‘A' promises 'B' a job in government service and 'B' promises to pay Rs. 10,000 for it. The agreement is—
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Enforceable on the direction of Government
d. Enforceable on the direction of the High Court
2. A fraud has been discovered by a party in a contract and lodged a criminal case, afterwards that the parties agreed to withdraw the case as only compensate the disadvantageous party such contract is
a. Void as against public policy
b. Illegal
c. Voidable
d. Valid
3. 'A' promises to paint a picture for 'B' within 10 days at a price of Rs. 1,000. ‘A’ dies before the day. The contract is:
a. Enforceable
b. Non-enforceable
c. Voidable
d. Void
4. The Supreme Court in Collector Land Acquisition, Anantnag v. Katiji, AIR 1987 SC 1353 laid down the
a. guiding principles for deciding an application under Section 5 of Limitation Act, 1963.
b. principles governing the nature of acknowledgement under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
5. In terms of Section 3 of the Limitation Act, the court is required to consider the question of Limitation:
a. When an objection on that point is made by the defendant
b. Only if it is not contested by the defendant
c. If an issue is framed in that regard
d. Suo motu on its own
6. Section 13 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies in case of:
a. a pauper
b. a minor
c. an idiot
d. an insane
7. The limitation period expired on 1.1.2012. But court had holidays from 30 December 2011 - 5 January 2012. Limitation would expire on
a. 29-Dec-11
b. 6-Jan-12
c. 1-Jan-12
d. Discretion of the court
8. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that 'Right to Sleep' is a fundamental right?
a. Naaz Foundation Case
b. In Re Ramlila Maidan Case
c. Anna Hazare Case
d. None of these
9. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court established the relationship between Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution?
a. R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
b. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
c. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
d. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
10. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation?
a. Article 22(1)
b. Article 22(3)
c. Article 21
d. Article 22(4)
11. The writ of mandamus would be issued when there is failure to:
a. perform a mandatory duty
b. perform a discretionary duty
c. perform an obligation arising out of contract
d. perform a duty by a private institution
12. In which of the following cases the Privy Council made a distinction between 'common intention' and 'similar intention'?
a. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
b. Mahboob Shah v. King Emperor
c. Shrinivasmal Barolia v. Emperor
d. Bannu Mal v. Emperor
13. Which of the following is not a meaning of the expression 'common intention' under section 3(5) of BNS, 2023?
a. A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the persons constituting the group
b. A desire to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the consequence
c. The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed
d. Evil intent to necessarily commit the same offence which is committed
14. The case of Mahboob Shah v. Emperor was decide by which one of the following Courts?
a. Federal Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Privy Council
d. House of Lords
15. It was alleged that 'L' 'M', 'N', 'P, 'Q' and 'R' with common object of taking forcible possession of land belonging to 'Y' entered his land, 'P' caused grievous hurt to 'Y' for the purpose of taking such possession. Presence of 'Q' and 'R' was doubted by the Court. Which one of the following statements; is correct is this regard?
a. 'L', 'M' and 'N' are guilty of the offence committed by 'P' on the basis of section 149, IPC
b. 'L', 'M' and 'AT are guilty of unlawful assembly
c. 'L', 'M' and 'N' are guilty on the basis of section 34, IPC
d. 'L', 'M' and 'N' are not guilty at all
16. Commutation of sentence of imprisonment for life is done under BNS, 2023 in: —
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
17. ln how many years a sentence of imprisonment for life can be commuted by the Government
a. 20 years
b. 18 years
c. 14 years
d. 2 years
18. In relation to expressions defined in S.3 of the Indian Evidence Act which of the following statement is not correct?
a. Facts include not only physical facts but also psychological facts
b. Court includes Arbitrators
c. An inscription on a stone is a document
d. A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disapproved
19. Consider the following statements:
1. The proceedings of the Parliament or State Legislatures of India are judicially noticeable facts
2. Rules of the road on land or at sea are not judicially noticeable facts.
3. Criminal law in force in India is judicially noticeable fact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
20. Which one of the following statements is not true?
According to Section 5 of the Evidence Act, evidence may be given in any suit or proceeding of the
a. existence of every fact in issue
b. non-existence of every fact in issue
c. those facts declared relevant under the various provisions of the Evidence Act
d. those facts which the parties think is relevant
21. The facts which form part of same transaction are relevant under
a. Section 2 of the BSA, 2023
b. Section 4 of the BSA, 2023
c. Section 5 of the BSA, 2023
d. Section 8 of the BSA, 2023
22. Which of the following statements is not relevant in a case where 'A' is tried for murder:
a. That 'A' quarrelled with dead person three days before the incident.
b. That 'A' has purchased a knife one hour before the incident.
c. That 'A' is a man of good character.
d. That 'A' is a man of bad character
23. The question is, whether A owes B Rs. 10,000. The facts that A asked C to lend him money, and D said to C in A's presence and hearing-"I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B Rs. 10,000", and that A went away without making any answer is a:
a. Relevant fact
b. Irrelevant fact
c. Fact in issue
d. None of the above
24. 'A' is tried for murder of 'B' by administering Potassium Cynide. The fact that A has purchased potassium cynide just before the murder of B is relevant under
a. Section 4 IEA
b. Section 8 IEA
c. Section 9 IEA
d. Section 10 IEA
25. Which of the following cannot be arrested by a police officer without warrant?
a. Person having possession of implements of house breaking
b. Person having possession of subject matter of theft
c. Deserter of armed forces
d. Person accused of non-cognizable offence
26. What is the meaning of non-bailable offence?
a. It means any other offence other than bailable
b. In non-bailable offence the bail is not a right
c. The bail is the discretion of the Court
d. All of the above
27. Who may record any confession or a statement made to him in the course of an investigation: —
a. Any senior police officer
b. Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction
c. Executive Magistrate
d. Any Judicial Magistrate
28. Section 173(8) of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with
a. Fresh investigation
b. Further investigation
c. Re investigation
d. None of the above
29. On completion of investigation, the officer incharge of a police station shall forward the police report under section 173(2) Cr.P.C. to
a. Sessions Court
b. Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Any Judicial Magistrate
d. Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of the offence
30. In the case of Madhu Bala v. Suresh Kumar (1997), the Supreme Court of India held that:
a. a police officer, in charge of the police station is bound to register an FIR in respect of a cognizable offence
b. a police officer when faced with a dilemma with respect to a complaint alleging commission of cognizable and non-cognizable offence must register an FIR
c. whenever a magistrate directs an investigation on a complaint, the police have to register a cognizable case on that complaint treating the same as the FIR and investigate into the same
d. a police officer must investigate a complaint alleging commission of a cognizable and non-cognizable offence only after a direction is issued by the magistrate
31. Cognizance of offence under Section 498A of IPC can be taken by a Court
a. on a police report
b. on the complaint of the person aggrieved
c. on the complaint of father/mother of the person aggrieved
d. all the above
32. When can a Judicial First-Class Magistrate try the offence for which imprisonment for life is prescribed?
a. No
b. l can if such offence is shown in the first schedule to be triable by such court
c. Only Sessions court can try those offence
d. None of the above
33. Where a judgment-debtor dies before the decree has been fully satisfied:
a. the same cannot be executed against the legal representatives
b. the same can be executed against anyone of the legal representatives of the judgment debtor in its entirety
c. the same can be executed against all the legal representatives
d. the same can be executed against any number of the legal representatives as the decree holder wants
34. Which section of Civil Procedure Code prohibits arrest or detention of women in the execution of decree for money?
a. Section 55
b. Section 56
c. Section 59
d. Section 60
35. A person may sue a foreign State –
a. Only with the consent of the Central Government
b. With the consent of the President of India
c. With the consent of the State Government
d. Both (a) and (c) above
36. Where immovable property is sold in execution of a decree and such sale has become absolute, the property shall be deemed to have vested in the purchaser from the time:
a. when the sale becomes absolute
b. when the property is sold
c. when the purchaser acquires possession
d. depends on the court
37. In execution of a decree, other than a decree for maintenance, passed against A, what shall be the attachable portion, if his salary is Rs. 10,000 per month?
a. Rs. 3,333
b. Rs. 5,000
c. Rs: 3,000
d. Rs. 6,666
38. The principles governing execution of decree and orders in CPC are dealt within:
a. Section 36 to 74 (substantive law) and Order 21 (procedural provisions)
b. Section 36 to 74 (procedural provisions) and Order 21 (substantive law)
c. Section 148A
d. Section 148 to 153B
39. Inter-pleader suit is a suit:
a. Between two advocates
b. Between Union Government Pleader and State Government Pleader
c. Instituted by a person who has no interest in the subject matter
d. Instituted by a person who has interest in the subject matter
40. Muhammad Afzal v. Ghulam Kasim (1903) ILR Cal 843 is a leading case on which of the following?
a. Rule against perpetuity
b. Equity of redemption
c. Doctrine of election
d. Doctrine of holding Over
41. Section 38 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 has no application
a. to previous transfer where the transaction is still incomplete
b. to succeeding transfer where the transaction is to be completed in future
c. to perpetuity transfer
d. none of the above
42. Specific Relief Act is an Act –
a. To consolidate and Amend the law relating to certain kinds of Specific Relief
b. To Define and Amend certain parts of the law relating to contracts
c. To define and Amend the law relating to certain kinds of Specific Relief
d. To Define and Amend the law relating to certain kinds of Specific Relief and Contracts
43. What is the time limit for filing suit for recovery of possession of immovable property under section 6 of Specific Relief Act?
a. 1 year from dispossession
b. 6 months from dispossession
c. 3 months from dispossession
d. No time limit is prescribed
44. Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, provides for:
a. The grounds on which specific performance of the contracts can be granted
b. The defences Which a person, against, whom the relief of specific
c. The defences which a person, against whom the relief of specific performance is claimed, cannot plead
d. The grounds on which specific performance of a contract cannot be granted
45. The effect of a notice under clause (b) of section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is
a. the payee forfeits the right to again present the cheque for payment
b. the payee can present the cheque for payment
c. the payee can present the cheque with the permission of the court
d. none of the above
46. For the purpose of attracting the provisions of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, a cheque has to be presented to the bank within a period of
a. six months
b. 15 days from the date on which it is drawn
c. three months from the date on which it is drawn or within the period of its validity whichever is earlier
d. None of the above
47. As per Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, every offence punishable under the Act is
a. Compoundable
b. Non-compoundable
c. Cognizable
d. Both (b) and (c) above
48. Any order made by the competent court under the Domestic Violence Act is enforceable: -
a. only in the district where order is issued
b. only in the state where order is issued
c. throughout India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
d. throughout India
49. Before making any order under Section 4(1) of the Probation of Offenders Act, the Court shall take into consideration the report, if any, of the ________ concerned in relation to the case.
a. Police Officer
b. Probation Officer
c. Prosecutor
d. Special Commission
50. Which of following conditions, as per provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, has to be adhered to while examining or recording statement of the child
a. the statement of child shall be recorded at the residence of child or the place where the usually resides or the place of his choice
b. as far as practicable the statement should be recorded by woman police officer not below the rank of Sub Inspector, who shall not be in uniform
c. the Investigating Officer shall ensure that at no point of time the child comes in contact in any way with the accused
d. all the above
51. Which of the following statements is not correct:
a. one or more Juvenile Justice Boards shall be constituted by the State Government for every district
b. each Juvenile Justice Board shall consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate and two social workers, of whom at-least one shall be a woman
c. the order passed by the Juvenile Justice Board in absence of any Member at any stage of proceedings shall be invalid
d. power of the Juvenile Justice Board may also be exercised by the High Court and the Court of Sessions, when the proceedings come before them in appeal, revision or otherwise
52. Which of the following is not the duty of Probation Officer?
a. To supervise probationers placed under his supervision and where necessary, endeavour to find the suitable employment
b. To advise and assist offenders in payment of compensation or costs ordered by the court
c. To inquire into the circumstances or home surroundings of any person accused of an offence
d. To arrange for lodging and boarding of the probationers
53. A. On failure to observe any of the conditions of the bond entered under Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, the Court is at discretion to sentence the offender for the original offence, or to impose a penalty upto rupees fifty in case of first failure.
B. An offender, above the age of twenty-one years, cannot be granted probation under Sections 3 & 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958.
C. On failure of the offender to enter a fresh bond on an order of Court under Section 8 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, the Court shall not sentence him for the offence of which he was found guilty.
D.The amount of compensation imposed on the offender under Section 5 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 can be recovered as fine in accordance with the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure.
Which of the above is correct?
a. Statements (A) & (B)
b. Statements (B) & (C)
c. Statements (C) & (D)
d. Statements (D) & (A)
54. Interpretation of statute should not be given a meaning which would make other________ Provisions?
a. In effective
b. Redundant
c. Dormant
d. None of the above
55. According to primary rule, the ________of a statute are to be understood in the natural, ordinary or popular and grammatical meaning unless such a construction leads to an Absurdity or contents or object of the statute suggests a different meaning?
a. Words
b. Phrase
c. Sentences
d. All of above
56. Restoration of possession of illegally dispossessed tenant is provided under _________ of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act
a. Section 9
b. Section 10
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
57. Under Section 8(1) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, landlord may let out the premises for residential purposes for a limited period not exceeding _________.
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 3 years
58. Chairperson for Local Complaint Committee to be nominated from amongst the _________ in the field of social work and committed to the cause of women.
a. Retired Judges
b. Eminent women
c. Eminent person
d. Any of the above
59. The leave granted during pendency of inquiry to the aggrieved woman under Section 12(1) of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 shall be _________ to the leave she would be otherwise entitled.
a. Concurrent
b. Subsequent
c. In addition
d. Any of the above
60. “Advertisement” under the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 includes-
a. Notice
b. Circular
c. Wrapper
d. All the above
61. Under Section 5 of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986-
a. any Gazetted Officer authorised by the State Government may enter and search any place in which he has reason to believe that an offence under this Act has been committed
b. Penalty for person who contravenes the provisions of Section 3 or Section 4 is provided
c. Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act
d. None of the above
62. उनके स्नेह की अन्त्रस्त्लीय सरिता मुखमुद्रा से स्पष्ट झांक रही थी ?
a. अन्तश्त्लीय
b. अंतशात्लीय
c. अशतलीय
d. अन्तस्तलीय
63. नायिका उत्ग्रीव रहकर दिनभर नायक की प्रतीक्षा करती रही?
a. उद्ग्रीव
b. उद्गिव्र
c. ऊद्ग्रिव
d. उत्ग्रीव
64. युधिस्तिर सबसे बड़े पांडव थे?
a. युधिष्ठिर
b. युधिशिठर
c. युधिस्थिर
d. युधषठिर
65. अनुशासन के अभाव में विद्यार्थियों में उच्श्रख्ला आती है ?
a. उच्चश्रृखलता
b. उच्चश्रृंखला
c. ऊचश्रृंखला
d. उच्छृंखलता
66. सभी देशवासियों को देश की समस्याओं के समाधान के लिए स्वयमेव सनन्ध्द हो जाना चाहिए ?
a. अन्न्द्य
b. अन्न्द्य
c. सनद्ध
d. सन्नद्ध
67. कृष्ण-भक्ति काव्य में ऐसा बहुत कुछ है जो नित्य और निमितिक सांप्रदायिक कामों से सम्बन्धित है ?
a. नैमित्तिक
b. नेमित्तिक
c. निमितिक
d. निमित्तिक
68. दिन-व-दिन रसायनों के आप्रत्याशित प्रभाव सामने आ रहे है ?
a. आप्रत्याशित
b. अप्रत्याशित
c. अप्रत्याशीत
d. आप्रात्याशीत
69. उपनिषदों को गीता का सतरोत कहा जाता है ?
a. स्त्रूत
b. श्रोत
c. स्त्रोत
d. श्रुत
70. पति-पत्नी के जोड़े को दमपति कहते है ?
a. दम्पति
b. दमपती
c. दम्पत्ति
d. दम्पती
71. विक्रमी संवत ईसवी सं से 57 वर्ष आगे रहता है ?
a. संवत
b. सम्वत
c. समवत
d. संवत्
72. अत्याधिक व्यस्तता से जीवन में नीरसता आ जाती है ?
a. अत्यधिक
b. अतयधिक
c. अत्याधिक
d. अत्याधीक
73. अंग प्रत्यारोपण के क्षेत्र में भारतीय शल्य-चिकित्सिक पर्याप्य सफल रहे है ?
a. चिक्तसिक
b. चिक्तसिय
c. चिकित्सक
d. चिकितसक
74. संस्कृत संश्लिशट भाषा है ?
a. संस्लिष्ठ
b. कोई त्रुटि नहीं
c. संश्लिष्ट
d. स्नस्लिस्ट
75. मन्दाकिनी की जलधारा अजस्सर रूप से प्रवाहित हो रही थी?
a. अजस्त्र
b. अजसत्र
c. अज्सर
d. अजससर
76. सभी भारतीय गीता के महातम्य से परिचित है ?
a. महात्म्य
b. माहात्मय
c. कोई त्रुटि नहीं
d. माहात्म्य
77. She sings ________ beautifully that everyone enjoys her performances.
a. So
b. Too
c. Such
d. Very
78. I would like ________ a doctor someday.
a. Becoming
b. to become
c. Become
d. Becomes
79. We've known each other ________ we were children.
a. Since
b. For
c. From
d. During
80. The package arrived ________ the expected delivery date.
a. On
b. In
c. At
d. Before
81. He went to the store ________ buy some groceries.
a. To
b. Too
c. And
d. Also
82. The cat is hiding ________ the bed.
a. In
b. On
c. Under
d. Between
83. ________ of my friends are coming to the party.
a. Many
b. Much
c. More
d. Most
84. I can't believe ________ my keys at home.
a. I forget
b. I forgot
c. I have forgotten
d. I've forget
85. He is the ________ of the two brothers
a. Younger
b. more young
c. Young
d. Youngest
86. The cake tasted ________ sweet that I couldn't finish it.
a. So
b. Such
c. Very
d. Too
87. I'm going to the store. Do you want ________?
a. come with me
b. coming with me
c. to come with me
d. came with me
88. She plays the piano ________.
a. Good
b. Well
c. Goodly
d. Best
89. I couldn't find my keys ________ I left them on the kitchen counter
a. Because
b. So
c. But
d. Or
90. The book is ________ on the table
a. Lays
b. Laid
c. Lying
d. Lay
91. He is ________ than his brother.
a. Smarter
b. Smart
c. most smart
d. the smartest
92. Under which section of “The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956.”- Temporary-absence of officers deals with
a. Section 21
b. Section 23
c. Section 29
d. Section 22
93. Under which section of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961- Suits for maintenance and annuities.
a. Section 24
b. Section 21
c. Section 22
d. Section 23
94. Under Sec 3(24) of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950 - "Tola" means a weight of
a. 150 grams troy or 11.638 grams.
b. 200 grams troy or 11.638 grams.
c. 180 grams troy or 11.638 grams.
d. 140 grams troy or 11.638 grams.
95. Under which section of Registration Act, 1908- Re-registration of certain documents deals with
a. Section 22
b. Section 25
c. Section 23A
d. Section 24
96. under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000-‘intermediary’ is defined
a. Section 2(V)
b. Section 2(P)
c. Section 2(W)
d. Section 2(Q)
97. Which of the following can be varied by a contract between the partners?
a. That every partner has a right to take part in the conduct of the business
b. That every partner is bound to attend diligently to his duties in the conduct of the business
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
98. In a sale of goods by auction, as soon as the hammer falls, the goods:
a. Become the property of the buyer only on payment of price
b. become the property of buyer even if there is a condition that the goods shall not be removed before payment
c. become the property of the buyer only if there is no condition that the goods shall not be removed before payment
d. do not become the property of the buyer however, the bidder is vested with the right to deal with them as owner
99. A contract of marriage between A and B is made in joke and without any specific intention. Such marriage is valid under
a. Hanafi Law
b. Shia Law
c. Shafi and Maliki Law
d. Hanbali Law
100. After the amendment of 2019, a Hindu wife shall not be entitled to live separately from her husband without forfeiting her claim to maintenance if:
a. He is guilty of desertion
b. He has treated her with cruelty
c. He is suffering from virulent form of leprosy.
d. If he has any other wife living.
