RAJASTHAN MOCK TEST 6
1. Which one of the following is prescribed by the maxim ex nudo pacto non oritur actio?
a. Doctrine of privity of contract
b. Doctrine of consideration
c. Doctrine of implied term
d. None of the above
Also Check: Contract Act Free Classes
2. An agreement entered into with free consent and lawful but with inadequate consideration is
a. Unlawful
b. Lawful
c. Void
d. Voidable
Also Check: Contract-I Free One Liner Notes
3. Mere silence is not fraud unless
a. there is a duty to speak
b. the silence is deceptive
c. there is a change in the circumstances to be brought to the notice of other party
d. all of the above
Also Check: Contract-II Free One Liner Notes
4. When the consent to the contract is caused by coercion, the contract is:
a. Voidable
b. Void
c. Valid
d. Illegal
Also Check: Contract Bare Act
5. An application for bringing on records the legal representatives of a party has to be filed within:
a. 30 days of the death
b. 75 days of the death
c. 15 days of the death
d. 90 days of the death
Also Check: CPC Free Classes
6. A proceeding filed after the prescribed period of limitation is to be dismissed
a. only when defendant sets up such defence
b. only when registry raises objection
c. even by the court itself
d. none of the above
Also Check: Limitation Act Free Classes
7. Under Limitation Act, the period of limitation for any suit or application shall be deemed to be extended for a maximum period of from the death of the person affected by disability—
a. one year
b. two years
c. three years
d. twelve years
Also Check: Limitation Act Free One Liner Notes
8. Preamble of the Constitution was amended and the words "Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic" were substituted for "Sovereign Democratic Republic" vide:
a. 93rd Amendment w.e.f. 20-11-2006
b. 85th Amendment w.e.f. 17-6-1995
c. 42nd Amendment w.e.f. 3-1-1977
d. 44th Amendment w.e.f. 20-6-1979
Also Check: Constitution Free Classes
9. Write the correct order of the words as used in the preamble of the Constitution:
a. Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
b. Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
c. Socialist Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
d. Socialist Secular Sovereign Democratic Republic
Also Check: Constitution Free One Liner Notes
10. The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in
a. Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of Madhya Pradesh
b. Bashesharnath v. Income Tax Commissioner
c. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar
d. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India.
lso Check: Constitution Free Detailed Notes
11. "Law" under Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution includes
1. ordinance. Order, notification
2. bye-law, rule, regulation
3. custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
Also Check: Constitution Bare Act
12. 'A', a Spanish citizen, who was residing in Paris, instigated the commission of an offence which in consequence was committed in India. He
a. is liable as the offence was committed in India
b. is liable since the Indian Penal Code also extends to extra-territorial acts
c. can be held liable because the offence was to be committed in India
d. cannot be held liable because instigation was not given on Indian territory
Also Check: IPC/BNS Free Classes
13. 'A' who is a citizen of India commits murder in Uganda. He is arrested in Delhi. He can be tried and convicted of murder—
a. Only in Uganda
b. Only in that country of which the deceased was a citizen
c. In any one of the above
d. In Delhi
Also Check: IPC/BNS Bare Act
14. The definition of movable property under section 2(21) of the BNS, 2023 excludes
a. Land
b. Things attached to the earth
c. Things permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the earth
d. All of the above
Also Check: IPC/BNS Detailed Notes
15. 'X' armed with a loaded pistol and ‘Y empty handed go to 'Z' shop in furtherance of their common intention to commit robbery, X enters the shop and on being resisted in carrying away property shoots Z with pistol. Z dies at once. For what acts of X, Y is liable:
a. Dacoity with murder
b. Extortion and culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Attempt to commit robbery when armed with deadly weapon
d. Robbery and murder
16. Section 3(5) of the BNS, 2023, recognizes one out of the following principles of criminal jurisprudence
a. Principle of Absolute Liability
b. Principle of Joint Liability
c. Principle of Strict Liability
d. Principle of Vicarious Liability.
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
17. In relation to the expressions defined in Section 2 of BSA, 2023 which of the following statement is not correct:
a. Fact includes not only physical facts but also psychological facts
b. Courts includes arbitrators
c. An inscription on a stone is a document
d. A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved
Also Check: Evidence/BSA Free One Liner Notes
18. Which kind of agreement can be presumed by the court under section 85-A IEA?
a. Written Agreement
b. Oral Agreement
c. A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved
d. None of the above
Also Check: Evidence/BSA Free Classes
19. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
Evidence under the Evidence Act means and includes
1. oral evidence
2. all documents except electronic records
3. all documents including electronic records
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
Also Check: BSA Bare Act
20. In the Law of Evidence 'Fact' means and includes:
a. Anything perceived by the senses
b. State of things capable of being perceived by the senses
c. Mental condition of which a person is conscious
d. Anything perceived by the senses
21. In a criminal case, the primary burden to prove a fact is upon:
a. Accused
b. Prosecution
c. Police
d. Court
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
22. A fact neither proved nor disproved is known as-
a. Proved
b. Disproved
c. Not proved
d. Conclusive proof
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
23. The maximum amount of maintenance provided under the Code of Criminal Procedure is: —
a. Rs. 500
b. Rs. 5,000
c. 'Rs. 1,000
d. No Fixed amount
Also Check: CRPC/BNSS Free Classes
24. Enforcement of order of maintenance in covered under section ………… of Cr.P.C
a. 125
b. 128
c. 126
d. 127
Also Check: BNSS Bare Act
25. Under Section 144 BNSS, 2023 a Magistrate has:
a. The power to grant interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceedings
b. No power to grant interim maintenance nor the expenses of the proceedings
c. Power to grant interim maintenance but no power to grant expenses of the proceedings
d. No power to grant interim maintenance but has the power to grant expenses of the proceedings
Also Check: BNSS Free One Liner Notes
26. Under which Section of BNSS,2023 conditional order for removal of nuisance may be issued?
a. Section 110
b. Section 130
c. Section 152
d. Section 134
Also Check: BNSS Free Detailed Notes
27. Which one of the following statements is correct? A conditional order for removal of public nuisance under section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure may be passed by
a. District Magistrate
b. Sub-divisional Magistrate
c. Executive Magistrate specially empowered
d. Any of the above
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
28. Order under Section 144 Cr.P.C. is amenable to writ jurisdiction on violation of any Fundamental Rights. This was held in case of:
a. Dibakar Naik v. Pushpalata Patel, (1997) 3 Crimes 107
b. Gopalachari v. State of Kerala, 1981 SCR 338
c. Gulam Abbas v. State of U.P., 1981 SC 2198
d. Shelam Ramesh v. State of A.P., (1999) 8 SCC 369
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
29. In a first information an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable the whole case shall be deemed to be –
a. Cognizable
b. Non-cognizable
c. It is not be seen whether it is a warrant case
d. It is not be seen whether it is a summon case
Also Check: Free Judiciary MCQs
30. Point out incorrect answer—
The First Information Report means:
a. Report about cognizable offence
b. Information given to the police officer
c. Information first in point of time
d. It must always be given in writing
Also Check: Free Judiciary Mock Tests
31. According to the Cr.P.C. every information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence shall be signed by
a. the person giving it
b. the officer in charge of a police station
c. the investigating officer
d. the concerned magistrate
32. In non-cognizable cases, the investigation starts: —
a. Immediately with the lodging of F.I.R.
b. After obtaining orders from concerned Magistrate.
c. The matter is referred to the concerned Superintendent of Police
d. In the same way as provided in Section 154, Cr.P.C.
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
33. A alleging that he is the adopted son of X, sues B to recover certain property granted to him by X, under a deed and forming part of X's estate. The court finds that A is not the adopted son of X, but he is entitled to the property under the deed and a decree is passed for A. The finding that-A is not the adopted son of X:
a. Will not operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit between A and B in which the question of adoption is again put in issue.
b. Will operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit between A and B.
c. Depends on the court's discretion
d. None of the above.
Also Check: CPC Free Classes
34. Which one of the following is not necessary for the applicability of the doctrine of res-judicata
a. Former suit must be pending before a competent court
b. Former suit must have been heard and finally decided by a competent court
c. Parties in the former suit as well as the subsequent suit must be the same
d. Subject matter in the former and the subsequent suit must be the same
Also Check: CPC Free One Liner Notes
35. Which of the following is not the requirement for stay of suit under Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure?
a. That parties to both the suits must be the same
b. That the matter in issue in the second suit must be directly and substantially in issue in prior suit
c. That prior suit must be pending in the same court or in any court in India, having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed
d. That where the previously instituted suit is pending, such court is of competent jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed in subsequent suit
Also Check: CPC Free Detailed Notes
36. That a petition dismissed under Article 226 would operate as res judicata so as to bar a similar petition in the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution was held in the case of;
a. Daryao v. State of U.P.
b. Arjun Singh v. State of M.P.
c. Sudhir Chandra v. State of W.B.
d. None of the above
Also Check: CPC Bare Act
37. Which one of the following under CPC is not correctly matched:
a. Section 50 — Legal Representative
b. Section 77 — Letter of Request
c. Section 80 — Notice
d. Section 11 — Res-Sub-judice
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
38. Provision relating to 'Precept' is provided in Civil Procedure Code under
a. Section 40
b. Section 44A
c. Section 45
d. Section 46
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
39. When does unborn person acquire vested interest on transfer?
a. As soon as he is born
b. On attaining majority
c. On attaining 21 years
d. After marriage, if female
Also Check: TPA Free Classes
40. 'A' lets the farm to B' on condition that he shall walk a hundred miles in an hour. The lease is void under
a. Section 23 of T.P.A.
b. Section 24 of T.P.A.
c. Section 25 of T.P.A.
d. None of the above
Also Check: TPA Free Classes
41. Specific Relief Act,1963 came into operation on
a. December 14, 1963
b. January 1,1964
c. February 1,1964
d. March 1,1964
Also Check: SRA Free One Liner Notes
42. No suit for recovery of possession mat be instituted under section 6 of Specific Relief Act:
a. No suit for recovery of possession mat be instituted under section 6 of Specific Relief Act:
b. Against Government
c. Against a Public Company
d. Against a private company
Also Check: SRA Bare Act
43. Under section of the Specific Relief act, 1963 a person cannot sue of recovering the possession of immovable property:
a. After six months from the date of dispossession
b. After nine months from the date of dispossession
c. After twelve months from the date of dispossession
d. After twelve-four months from the date of dispossession
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
44. What's the maximum punishment under the Negotiable Instruments Act
a. 2 Years Only
b. 6 Years and or fine which is double amount the dishonour
c. Any punishment below 7 years
d. None of the above
Also Check: NIA Bare Act
45. How much time is given for complaint for 'dishonour' of cheque?
a. 45 days of intimation of dishonour
b. 90 days of intimation of dishonour
c. 30 days of intimation of dishonour
d. 15 days of intimation of dishonour
Also Check: Free Judiciary MCQs
46. What are the defences available against proceedings under 138 of section Negotiable Instruments Act?
a. absence of a legally enforceable debt or liability
b. absence of legal notice of 15 days
c. lack of jurisdiction
d. all of the above
Also Check: Free Judiciary Mock Tests
47. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 came into force on:
a. 26th January, 2005
b. 17th october, 2006
c. 13th september, 2005
d. 26th october, 2006
Also Check: DV Act Free One Liner Notes
48. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, which came into force in November, 2012, 'child' means a boy or girl below the age of
a. 15 years
b. 16 years
c. 17 years
d.18 years
Also Check: POCSO Act One Liner Notes
49. According to Section 25 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, statement of a child under Section 163 of the code of Criminal Procedure to be recorded by the Magistrate:
a. shall be recorded in presence of the advocate of the accused
b. shall not be recorded in presence of the advocate of the accused
c. shall be recorded in presence of the Investigating Officer
d. shall be recorded in presence of woman Police Officer
Also Check: POCSO Act Free Classes
50. What is the age of juvenile in juvenile justice (care and protection) Act
a. 18 years
b. 19 years
c. 20 years
d. 21 years
Also Check: Juvenile Justice Act Bare Act
51. Any person aggrieved by the order made by the competent authority under the juvenile justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 can appeal to
a. The Sessions Court
b. The High Court
c. Home Minister
d. Chief Justice Magistrate
52. Which one of the following is not a condition precedent to the release of an offender on probation under Section 4, Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
a. Circumstances of the case
b. Nature of the offence
c. Character of the offender
d. Amount of damage caused by the offender
Also Check: Probation of Offenders Act Free One Liner Notes
53. In which of the following leading cases, Hon'ble the Supreme Court held that benefit of Section 3 or Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is subject to the limitations laid down in these provisions and the words 'may direct' in Section 4 does not mean 'must direct'.
a. State of Gujarat v. V.A. Chouhan, AIR 1983 SC 359
b. Phul Singh v. State of Haryana, AIR 1980 SC 249
c. Ram Prakash v. State of Himachal Pradesh, AIR 1973 SC 780
d. Smt. Devki v. State of Haryana, AIR 1979 SC 1948
Also Check: Probation of Offenders Act Bare Act
54. Where in an enactment, there are two provisions which cannot be reconciled with each other; they should be so interpreted that, if possible, effect may be given to both. This is what known as the_____________
a. Rule of harmonious construction
b. Rule of reasonable construction
c. Rule of ejusdem generis
d. None of above
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
55. Rule of ejusdem generis is applicable when__________?
a. Specific word follow general words
b. General word follows specific words
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Both (a) and (b)
56. In which of the following Section of the domestic violence Act, the term ‘Domestic violence’ is defined?
a. Section 1
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. None of these
Also Check: DV Act Free One Liner Notes
57. The accounts of the agency referred to in Section 8(2) of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 shall be maintained and audited in such manner as may, in consultation with the _________.
a. Advocate-General of the State
b. Accountant-General of the State
c. Secretary of the State
d. None of the above
Also Check: Sexual Harassment Act Free One Line Notes
58. The leave granted during pendency of inquiry to the aggrieved woman under Section 12(1) of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 shall be _________ to the leave she would be otherwise entitled.
a. Concurrent
b. Subsequent
c. In addition
d. Any of the above
59. Duties of employer are dealt under _________ of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act.
a. Section 17
b. Section 18
c. Section 19
d. Section 20
Also Check: Sexual Harassment Act Bare Act
60. Rajasthan Rent Control (Amendment Act, 2017 came into forces on:
a. 27.9.2017
b. 2709.2018
c. 21.10.2018
d. 27.10.2019
Also Check: RJS Rent Control Act Free One Liner Notes
61. Choose the correct option :
I. The rent payable for any premises shall be such as may be agreed upon between the landlord and the tenant.
II. Rent shall include the charges payable for amenities.
a. I is correct but II is incorrect
b. I is incorrect but II is correct
c. Both I and II are correct
d. Both I and II are incorrect
Also Check: RJS Rent Control Act Bare Act
62. Pick the right idiom which fits into the sentence:
He tried to put a_________ in my new project, but failed.
a. Wet blanket
b. Spoke in the wheel
c. Deaf ear
d. Weal and woe
Also Check: Free Judiciary English Language Classes
63. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
You need an iron hand to complete this Task
a. By force
b. With iron tool
c. Dangerous weapon
d. Strong man
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
64. Direction: A sentence is given with a blank select the correct form of the phrasal verb for the blank given in the sentence and mark the correct answer.
How can someone__________ of his promise in such a manner?
a. Back out
b. Back up
c. Back in
d. Back down
Also Check: Free Judiciary MCQs
65. Direction: Which one of the following phrasal verbs maybe used in the blank space,
“The committee has__________ (call) the meeting.”?
a. Called off
b. Called up
c. Call for
d. Call in
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
66. Direction: choose the correct alternative mentioned below:
To bite the dust
a. Have mothing to eat
b. Eat voraciously
c. Eat roots
d. to fail
Also Check: Bare Acts
67. Choose the correct form of modal auxiliary verb for the given sentence:
Internet________ provide information on any topic with the click of a mouse.
a. Ought to
b. Can
c. May
d. Should
Also Check: Free Judiciary Mock Tests
68. Fill in the blank with the correct modal:
He________ not enter my house again.
(command)
a. Shall
b. May
c. Might
d. Should
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
69. Choose the correct phrasal verb pairs to fill in the blanks.
I could not___________ what he hinted at, but _________ my mind to help him.
a. Make in, made up
b. Make out, made up
c. Make for, made of
d. Made out, made in
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
70. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The teacher asked the monitor to divide the class_________ groups for the activity.
a. In
b. For
c. Into
d. On
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
71. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank
The old box of Salman served as the________ guardian, safeguarding the valuable moments of generation past.
a. Memorie’s
b. Memories’
c. Memories;
d. Memories!
Also Check: Free Judiciary English Language Classes
72. Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks.
This is the___________ news from the scene of the accident.
a. Farthest
b. Late
c. Further
d. Latest
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
73. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The food was well cooked________ bland.
a. Then
b. So
c. Or
d. But
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
74. Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. If no article is needed, select ‘No article needed”
Can you explain___________ concept of a Fourier transform?
a. No article needed
b. A
c. The
d. An
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
75. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
RK Narayan is not a British novelist, __________?
a. Is it
b. Isn’t it
c. Is he
d. Isn't he
Also Check: Free Judiciary MCQs
76. Choose the option that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.
“We____________ definitely look into the matter”, the officer affirmed.
a. May
b. Need
c. Will
d. Would
Also Check: Bare Acts
77. तवर्ग का उच्चारण-स्थान है?
a. मूर्धा
b. दन्त
c. ओष्ठ
d. कण्ठ
Also Check: Free Judiciary Hindi Language Classes
78. पवर्ग का उच्चारण स्थान है?
a. दन्त
b. कण्ठ
c. ओष्ठ
d. मूर्धा
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
79. चवर्ग का उच्चारण स्थान है?
a. तालु
b. ओष्ठ
c.कण्ठ
d. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
80. वर्णों के समूह को क्या कहते हैं?
a. समूह शब्द
b. संयुक्त शब्द
c. वर्णमाला
d. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
81. क्ष्, त्र और ज्ञ ये तीनों कौन-सा व्यंजन है?
a. संयुक्त व्यंजन
b. उष्म व्यंजन
c. तवर्गीय व्यंजन
d. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
82. पुस्तक कौन-सा शब्द है?
a. तद्भव
b. तत्सम
c. देशज
d. विदेशज
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
83. आग कौन-सा शब्द है?
a. तत्सम
b. तद्भव
c. देशज
d. विदेशज
Also Check: Free Judiciary Mock Tests
84. पृथ्वी कौन-सा शब्द है?
a. तत्सम
b. तद्भव
c. देशज
d. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Also Check: Free Judiciary MCQs
85. टेबुल कौन-सा शब्द है?
a. देशज
b. तद्भव
c. विदेशज
d. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Also Check: Bare Acts
86. नाक कौन-सा शब्द है?
a. योगिक
b. रूढ़
c. योगरूढ़
d. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Also Check: Free Judiciary Hindi Language Classes
87. फूल कौन-सा संज्ञा है ?
a. समूहवाचक
b. जातिवाचक
c. व्यक्तिवाचक
d. भाववाचक
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
88. ईमानदारी कौन-सा संज्ञा है?
a. यक्तिवाचक
b. भाववाचक
c. समूहवाचक
d. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
89. लंबोदर कौन-सा शब्द है?
a. रूढ़
b. योगिक
c. योगरूढ़
d. ये सभी
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
90. सोना कौन-सा संज्ञा है?
a. भाववाचक
b. समूहवाचक
c. द्रव्यवाचक
d. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
91. ''मैं'' कौन-सा पुरुष है?
a. उत्तम पुरुष
b. मध्यम पुरुष
c. अन्य पुरुष
d. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
92. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000-Retention of electronic records.
a. Section 4
b. Section 10
c. Section 7
d. Section 8
Also Check: IT Act One Liner Notes
93. Under which Section of Registration Act, 1908- Offices of Registrar and Sub-Registrar deals with
a. Section 12
b. Section 9
c. Section 7
d. Section 10
Also Check: Registration Act Bare Act
94. Under section 3(4) of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950-"Excisable Article" means and includes-
a. Any intoxicating drug
b. Stills or other appliances for distillation.
c. Fermented wash or other material for distillation.
d. All of the above
Also Check: Rajasthan Excise Act One Liner Notes
95. Under which section of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961- ‘Suits for money’ deals with
a. Section 24
b. Section 23
c. Section 21
d. Section 22
Also Check: Rajasthan Court Fees Act One Liner Notes
96. Under which section of “The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956.”- Powers and duties of Courts and Officers deals with
a. Section 21
b. Section 23
c. Section 25
d. Section 26
Also Check: Free RJS Land Revenue Act One Liner Notes
97. Restitution of conjugal rights is available to
a. Wife
b. Only husband and not wife
c. Wife and husband both
d. Husband
98. Which of the following duties can be varied by contract between the partners?
a. Duty to indemnify for losses caused due to willful negligence
b. Duty to contribute to losses
c. Duty to work without remune-ration
d. All of the above
Also Check: Partnership Act Free One Liner Notes
99. As per Section 41, the buyer must have the reasonable opportunity to examine the goods for the purpose of ascertaining
a. The goods are in a deliverable state
b. The goods are of merchantable quality
c. The goods are in conformity with the contract
d. None of the above
Also Check: SOGA Free One Liner Notes
100. In whose custody, the Muslim illegitimate children will be kept?
a. Father
b. Mother
c. Both father and mother
d. Maternal grandmother