1. The contents of documents may be proved by:

a. direct evidence only

b. indirect evidence only

c. direct evidence & indirect evidence

d. none of the above

 

2. The phrase “without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done” means:

a. Past actions become illegal

b. Pending cases abate

c. Acts done under the rule before modification/annulment remain valid

d. The rule revives automatically

 

3. In which of the following mens rea has been considered to be an essential element of an offence?

a. Srinivasmal Barolia v. Emperor

b. R. v. Tolson

c. Nathulal v. State of Madhya Pradesh

d. In all of the above

 

4. He is the ________ of the two brothers.

a. younger

b. more young

c. young

d. youngest

 

5. Under which one of the following Sections of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 trial of cases can be taken before High Court?

a. Section 515

b. Section 520

c. Section 522

d. No trial before High Court

 

6. Which of the following facts can be proved under section 95 of the BSA?

a. The policy of insurance is affected on goods in ships from Kolkata to London. The goods are shipped in a particular ship which is lost. A party says that the particular ship was orally excepted from the policy.

b. A agrees in writing to pay Rs. 1000 on the first of March, 2002. A party says that at the same time an oral agreement was made that money should not be paid till the 31st of March, 2002.

c. An estate called the Rampur Tea Estate is sold by a deed which contains a map of the property sold. One party says that land not included in the map had always been regarded ais part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed.

d. A enters into a written contract with B to work in certain mines, the property of B, on certain terms. A says that he was induced to do so by a misrepresentation of B as to their value.

 

7. Which one of the following words is a verb?

a. Sympathy

b. Sympathize

c. Sympathetic

d. Sympathizer

 

8. Section 6 of BNSS provides

a. Territorial jurisdiction

b. Classes of criminal courts

c. Jurisdiction of criminal courts

d. Power of magistrate

 

9. NOTE: Select the correct the indirect form of the given sentence.

Pritam said, “The prisoner had slept throughout the journey.”

a. Pritam said that the prisoner had been sleeping throughout the journey.

b. Pritam said that the prisoner had sleep throughout the journey.

c. Pritam said that the prisoner had slept throughout the journey.

d. Pritam said that the prisoner has slept throughout the journey.

 

10. Which principle of interpretation is employed in Section 10(3)?

a. Strict construction

b. Ejusdem generis

c. Legal fiction

d. Harmonious construction

 

11. For a defense of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication

a. Can be self-administered

b. Administered against his will or knowledge

c. Should not be self-administered

d. None of the above

 

12. The examination authorities under the Act are specified in:

a. Schedule-II

b. Rules

c. Official Gazette

d. Schedule-I

 

13. Any other article may be declared an excisable article for the purposes of the Act by:

a. Excise Commissioner

b. Excise Officer

c. State Government

d. District Magistrate

 

14. निम्न में बताइए कि किस शब्द में द्वित्व व्यंजन है?

a. पुनः

b. उत्साह

c. दिल्ली

d. इलाहाबाद

 

15. ऋणात्मक का विलोम शब्द है-

a. धनात्मक

b. रिणात्मक

c. मानात्मक

d. अनात्मक

 

16. Select the most appropriated ANTONYM of the given word?

TENACIOUS

a. Persistent

b. Relentless

c. Steadfast

d. Yielding

 

17. Assertion (A): An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person.

Reason (R): An accomplice is unworthy of credit, unless he is corroborated in material particulars. 

Codes:

a. Both A and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

 

18. "Frailty" write the opposite of the given word.

a. energy

b. intensity

c. vehemence

d. strength

 

19. जंगम का विलोम होगा?

a. अगम

b. दुर्गम

c. स्थावर

d. चंचल

 

20. Every person has right to defend his own body:

a. against any offence affecting the human body

b. and the body of his friends, against any offence affecting the human body

c. and the body of any person, against any offence affecting the human body.

d. and the body of his blood relative against any offence affecting the human body.

 

21. These constitutional provisions impose duty on:

a. Judiciary

b. Citizens

c. State

d. Parliament only

 

22. A Magistrate, under Section 282 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 has the power to convert summons cases to warrant-cases relating to offence punishable for a term exceeding:

a. Six months

b. Three months

c. One year

d. Nine months

 

23. निम्न में से कौनसा 'विलोम युग्म' सही है:-

a. निष्काम-सकाम

b. निकट-सन्निकट

c. नाश-विनाश

d. मितव्ययी अल्पव्ययी

 

24. When the property seized by a police officer is NOT produced before the Court during the inquiry or trial, the property for disposal shall be governed by which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

a. Section 454

b. Section 455

c. Section 457

d. Section 458

 

25. Section 9 is followed by punishment provision under:

a. Section 8

b. Section 10

c. Section 6

d. Section 12

 

26. What maximum punishment can be awarded by a Magistrate of 1st Class in a summary trial?

a. One month

b. Three months

c. Six months

d. One year

 

27. Under section 2(17) of BNS, life denotes

a. Life of a human being

b. Life of an animal

c. Life of human being and of a animal both

d. Life of either human being or animal.

 

28. NOTE: Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

She said, “She must leave all the bad habits.”

a. She said she has to leave all the bad habits.

b. She said that she must have leave all the bad habits.

c. Sha said that she had to leave all the bad habits.

d. She said that she could leave all the bad habits.

 

29. The use of any unauthorised telephonic, wireless, electronic or other instrument or gadget is:

a. Expressly excluded from the Act

b. Permitted with prior approval

c. Included within the meaning of "unfair"

d. Punishable only if used outside the examination centre

 

30. Before making an order under Section 4(1), the court shall consider:

a. Police report

b. Report of probation officer, if any

c. Report of jail authority

d. Report of village headman

 

31. Which document is not admissible without formal proof?

a. Admitted Document

b. Medical Report

c. Report of Chief Inspector of Explosives

d. Report of a Director of the Fingerprint Bureau

 

32. Section 2(g) of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, defines

a. bailable offence

b. non-bailable offence

c. cognizable offence

d. non-cognizable offence

 

33. choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

"One who does not care for literature or art"

a. Philistine

b. Dictator

c. Primitive

d. Hypocrite

 

34. Section 2(f) of the POCSO Act serves the purpose of:

a. Creating a new offence

b. Fixing punishment

c. Avoiding repetition of definitions

d. Providing exceptions

 

35. When by putting any person in fear of injury he is dishonestly induced by another to deliver property it is

a. Theft

b. Dacoity

c. Robbery

d. Extortion

 

36. Evidence of a child victim under POCSO is recorded primarily by:

a. Police officer

b. Magistrate

c. Special Court

d. Child Welfare Committee

 

37. Directions: choose the correct form of tense for the given sentence:

Although he________ hard for over five years, he hasn’t got a degree yet.

a. Has been studying

b. Will study

c. Studied

d. None of the above

 

38. I will call you ________ I arrive.

a. Before

b. Until

c. When

d. since

 

39. He mailed his application for a new job.

a. The application for a new job is mailed by him.

b. The application for a new job was mailed by him.

c. He is the mailer of the application for a new job.

d. He was the mailer of the application for a new job.

 

40. When a court releases an offender on probation under Section 4(1), it may additionally pass:

a. A conviction order

b. A supervision order

c. A detention order

d. A recovery order

 

41. Which of the following offence in the Indian Penal Code corresponds to the offence known as 'malicious injury to property'?

a. Theft

b. Criminal breach of trust

c. Mischief

d. None of the above

 

42. Section 121 BNSS deals with:

a. Fine in lieu of forfeiture

b. Arrest procedure

c. Search warrant

d. Seizure of property

 

43. Which of the following is not essential for the offence of kidnapping?

a. Minor child

b. Intention of the accused

c. Without the permission of lawful guardian

d. None of the above

 

44. The prohibition under Section 3 applies:

a. Only to examinees

b. Only to candidates appearing in competitive examinations

c. Only to persons present in the examination hall

d. To any person

 

45. For the admissibility of a dying declaration, it is not necessary that the statement:

a. relates to cause of death

b. the person making the statement must be under expectation of death

c. the person making the statement must be competent

d. the statement must be complete.

 

46. Admissibility of evidence is to be decided by

a. the parties to a trial

b. the Judge

c. the public prosecutor

d. the advocates of the parties

 

47. युधिस्तिर सबसे बड़े पांडव थे ?

a. युधिष्ठिर

b. युधिशिठर

c. युधिस्थिर

d. युधषठिर

 

48. Which case relates to estoppel?

a. Mohiribibi v. Dharam Das Ghoush

b. Hadley v. Bexandale

c. Pickard v. Sears

d. Lalman Shuklu v. Gauri Dutt

 

49. Clauses (11) and (12) of Section 2 are:

a. Amended

b. Substituted

c. Re-numbered

d. Omitted

 

50. Under the Act, "Beer" includes:

a. Only ale and stout

b. Only porter and wine

c. Ale, stout, porter and all other fermented liquors made from malt

d. All alcoholic liquors for human consumption

 

51. 'मुट्ठी गरम करना मुहावरे का अर्थ है:

a. रिश्वत देना।

b. हाथ सेकना।

c. बुखार चढ़ना

d. सारा शरीर गरम होना

 

52. Which of the following has been specifically excluded from the definition of complaint under section 2(h) of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

a. Protest petition

b. Joint complaint

c. Police report

d. None of the above

 

53. हिन्दी साहित्य का नौवाँ रस कौन-सा है ?

a. वात्सल्य

b. शांत

c. भक्ति

d. करुण

 

54. Which of the following is included within the definition of “arms” under the Arms Act, 1959?

a. Ordinary walking stick

b. Lathi used for agricultural purposes

c. Firearms and sharp-edged deadly weapons

d. Toy weapons

 

55. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that the word 'property', used in section 405 of the Indian Penal Code, has to be interpreted in wider sense as it is not restricted by any qualification under section 405. It was held that whether an offence defined in that Section could be said to have been committed would depend not on the interpretation of the word 'property' but on the fact whether that particular kind of property could be subject to the acts covered by that section. That is to say, the word 'property' would cover that kind of property with respect to which the offence contemplated in that section could be committed?

a. R K Dalmia v Delhi Admin

b. R S Nayak v A RAntulay

c. Jayalalitha v Union of India

d. None of the above

 

56. सन्यासी का विलोम शब्द है-

a. राजा

b. भोगी

c. गृहस्थ

d. इसमें से कोई नहीं

 

57. The information protected under Section 5 is information:

a. Received from any source whatsoever

b. Which has come to the person's knowledge by virtue of the work being entrusted to him

c. Obtained from examinees

d. Published in the Official Gazette

 

58. Where no special court exists:

a. High Court acts

b. Supreme Court acts

c. Sessions Court acts

d. Police acts

 

59. A woman belonging to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe who does not physically resist a sexual act

a. Is deemed to have consented

b. Is presumed to have consented

c. Is not regarded as consenting by that fact alone

d. Is deemed to have waived the offence

 

60. What is judicial notice?

a. Notice issued by a judge

b. Demeanor of a witness noticed by judge

c. Facts brought to the notice of judge

d. None of the above

 

61. Under Section 200 Cr.P.C. recording of pre-summoning evidence may be dispensed with if:

a. The complaint is supported by an affidavit of the complainant

b. The complaint is made in writing by a public servant

c. The Magistrate feels that ends of justice require pre-summoning evidence to be dispensed with.

d. None of the above

 

62. "Lanced Poppy Heads" means:

a. Unripe poppy flowers

b. Capsules of the opium poppy plant from which juice has been extracted

c. Poppy seeds only

d. Any narcotic substance

 

63. Training-related rules—such as firearms used, age-limits, and conditions—are covered under:

a. Clause (g)

b. Clause (h)

c. Clause (j)

d. Clause (l)

 

64. Which among the following is not a fact admitted?

a. Facts which the parties agree to admit at the hearing

b. Facts which the parties agree in writing to admit before the hearing

c. Facts which by any rule of pleading are deemed to have been admitted

d. Facts which are uncontested by the opposite party

 

65. I couldn't find my keys ________ I left them on the kitchen counter.

a. because

b. so

c. but

d. or

 

66. The Act covers:

a. Only trial of children

b. Only punishment

c. Only adoption

d. Apprehension, detention, prosecution, penalty, imprisonment, rehabilitation

 

67. He is very good _______ making stories.

a. in

b. about

c. at

d. for

 

68. Section 15 of the Act deals with:

a. Investigation of the offences

b. Cognizance of offences

c. Designated Courts

d. Search and seizure

 

69. The 2019 Amendment proviso refers to which of the following authorities for deposit of excess firearms?

a. District Magistrate

b. Nearest police station or licensed dealer or unit armoury

c. Central Government

d. Licensing authority only

 

70. "Fermented liquor" means:

a. Wine, Pachari (Pachawai) and fermented Tari

b. Spirit only

c. Denatured spirit only

d. Heritage liquor only

 

71. Which of the following sentence uses the modal ‘may’ to express a possibility?

a. It may rain today

b. May you be happy

c. May I go there?

d. You may use my phone if your is not working

 

72. Can a corporate body he prosecuted for the offence of defamation?

a. Yes

b. No

c. Depends

d. None of the above

 

73. निम्न में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द 'अग्नि' (आग) के पर्यायवाची हैं?

a. पावक, अनल, कृशानु

b. अनिल, पावक, हुताशन

c. तपन, दहन, वारि

d. अर्णव, पावक, अनल

 

74. Point out incorrect response—

The period of limitation for taking cognizance of an offence shall be—

a. Six months if offence is punishable with fine only

b. One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year

c. Three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one years but not exceeding three years

d. Five years, if the offence is punishable with death sentence

 

75. 'A', a revenue officer, having dominion over public money by virtue of his office and is either directed by law, or bound by a contract, express or implied, with the government; to pay into a certain treasury-all the public money which he holds. 'A' dishonestly appropriates the money. Which one of the following offences has 'A' committed under BNS?

a. Theft, section 303, BNS

b. Criminal breach of trust, section 316 BNS

c. Misappropriation of property, section 314, BNS

d. Robbery, section 309, BNS

 

76. Which of the following breach of contract is punishable under Indian Penal Code?

a. Breach of contract of service during voyage or journey

b. Breach of contract to attend on and supply wants of helpless person

c. Breach of contract to serve at distant place to which servant is conveyed at master' s expense

d. None of the above

 

77. निम्नलिखित में से विराम चिह्न नहीं है?

a. अल्प विराम

b. पूर्ण विराम

c. उपदेशक

d. प्रश्नवाचक

 

78. 'A' commits theft of property in B's possession and while committing this theft he has a loaded pistol under the garment kept for the purpose of, hurting 'B' in case 'B' should resists. The offence committed by 'A' is defined, under which section of BNS?

a. Section 307

b. Section 303

c. Section 309

d. Section 306

 

79. Pachawai includes:

a. Only fermented grain

b. Any liquid obtained therefrom whether diluted or undiluted

c. Spirit obtained by distillation

d. Molasses only

 

80. 'सृजन' शब्द का विलोम है: -

a. निर्माण

b. संहार

c. विजन

d. दुर्जन

 

81. Section 2(1)(d) aligns the definition of “child” with:

a. The BNS only

b. United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC)

c. Only local laws

d. Employment laws

 

82. Which Section of the BSA, is founded upon the doctrine laid down in "Pickard v. Sears'?

a. Section 4

b. Section 32

c. Section 121

d. Section 167

 

83. The experts under Section 39 assist the child mainly during:

a. Filing of FIR

b. Investigation by police

c. Judicial proceedings

d. Sentencing of accused

 

84. Which one of the following statements is correct? The protection of professional communication is provided under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, section 126 to 129 is available only

a. for engaging an advocate to plead his case

b. for disclosing communication to advocate or his colleagues

c. before commission of the offence or illegal acts

d. after commission of the crime or illegal acts

 

85. Every warrant of arrest shall remain in force until:

a. It is executed

b. Cancelled by court which issued it

c. It expires on its own

d. Only (a) and (b) are correct

 

86. Which of the following among item A and item B are correct?

Item A: Common intention within the meaning of Section 3(5) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, means:

1. Evil intention of many persons to commit the same act

2. Implication of a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of mind, between all the persons constituting the group

3. A desire of several persons to commit an act without contemplating the consequences

Item B: Within the meaning of Section 190 in prosecution of common object of an unlawful assembly's means:

1. In relation to common intention of the group

2. In order to attain the common object

3. In relation to a common object 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a. 1 and 2 of both items

b. 1 and 3 of both items

c. 2 alone of both items

d. 3 along of both items

 

87. Section 175 BNSS deals with:

a. Police officer's power to investigate cognizable case

b. Arrest procedure

c. Search warrant

d. Seizure of property

 

88. Section 170 of the BSA is a "Savings" clause. What is its primary function?

a. It allows the Judge to save a witness from cross-examination.

b. It states that the repeal of the Indian Evidence Act shall not affect any pending investigation, trial, or proceeding.

c. It saves the government from being sued for legal errors.

d. It allows digital evidence to be saved on external hard drives

 

89. We serve hot meals till 10.30 guests can order, coffee and sandwiches upto 11.30.

a. Hot meals are serving till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are ordering by guests till 11.30.

b. Hot meals are being served till 10.30 coffee and sandwiches are being ordered till 11-30.

c. Hot meals are served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches may be ordered till 11.30.

d. Hot meals will be served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches will be ordered upto 11.30.

 

90. The Division Bench of the Rajasthan Tax Board may revise:

a. Any original order of an Excise Officer

b. Any order passed on appeal by the Excise Commissioner

c. Any order of the State Government

d. Any order of a Civil Court

 

91. किस रस में घृणा की अनुभूति होती है?

a. वीभत्स रस

b. भयानक रस

c. रौद्र रस

d. करुण रस

 

92. A person arrested by police must be produced before the Judicial Magistrate who has the jurisdiction. If the Judicial Magistrate is not available, the accused can be produced before:

a. other Judicial Magistrate

b. any Executive Magistrate

c. any Executive Magistrate who is so empowered

d. District Magistrate

 

93. निम्नलिखित शब्द-युग्मों में से विलोम शब्द का सही विकल्प बताइएः-

a. जड़-चेतना ।

b. निर्दय-त्याज्य ।

c. शुभ-लाभ ।

d. नैसर्गिक-कृत्रिम ।

 

94. निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध शब्द बताइए?

a. प्योताना।

b. द्वारिका'।

c. मंत्रीमंडल।

d. हरितिमा ।

 

95. In a case of murder by A of B which facts are relevant

a. that A left immediately the place of crime before police reached

b. that A told his friends about taking revenge for his father's death

c. That A was seen fleeing with a knife immediately after murder of B

d. All of the above

 

96. Nothing contained in this Act shall affect the provisions of any law relating to:

a. Registration

b. Customs

c. Municipal taxation

d. Forest produce

 

97. निम्न में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द पर्यायवाची है?

a. विभावरी, निशाचरी, रजनी

b. मधुकरी, मिक्षा, भीख

c. मान, सम्मान, मान्य

d. अंबुधि, अर्णय, नर्णय

 

98. ________ he studied hard, he couldn't pass the exam.

a. Although

b. Because

c. So

d. Since

 

99. A child whose parents are unfit:

a. Is not covered

b. Is covered under this definition

c. Must go to court

d. Is independent

 

100. Section 15A(11) requires the State to specify an appropriate scheme to ensure implementation of rights and entitlements of victims and witnesses primarily:

a. To punish offenders more severely

b. To ensure victims’ access to justice and protection

c. To regulate legal fees for advocates

d. To monitor police work efficiency only