1. He does not know how to use _______ smartphone.

a. the

b. an

c. some

d. a

 

2. What is most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word?

Trajectory

a. Path

b. Descent

c. Nadir

d. Ascension

 

3. Section 38 applies during:

a. Investigation stage only

b. Trial stage while recording evidence

c. Appeal stage

d. Sentencing stage

 

4. The punishment under Section 6 is higher than that under:

a. Section 4

b. Section 8

c. Section 10

d. Section 12

 

5. Nothing is an offence if it done by a person who is a:

a. Boy of 6 years having sufficient maturity to understand the nature and consequence of his conduct

b. Girl below 12 years having sufficient maturity to understand the nature and consequence of her conduct

c. A man aged 100 years

d. All of the above

 

6. Which of the following best describes Section 45?

a. Penal provision

b. Procedural safeguard

c. Statutory exemption clause

d. Rule-making provision

 

7. A makes an attempt to pick the pocket of Z by thrusting his hand into Z's pocket. A fails in the attempt in consequence of Z's having nothing in his pocket.

a. A is guilty under section 511 of the Indian Penal Code

b. A is guilty not guilty under section 511 of the Indian Penal Code

c. A is guilty of no offence

d. None of the above

 

8. Under which one of the following sections of BSA previous good character is relevant in criminal cases

a. Section 18

b. Section 26

c. Section 49

d. Section 47

 

9. In which of the following cases it was held that "The amount awarded under Section 125 Cr.P.C. for maintenance was adjustable against the alimony amount awarded in matrimonial proceeding under Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and was not to be given over and above the same."?

a. Satya v. Teja Singh

b. Yamuna Bai v. Anant Rao

c. Sudeep Chaudhary v Radha Chaudhary

d. Rewati Bai v. Jogeshwer

 

10. Under Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam the Rule of "Res gestae" is applicable in

a. Civil cases only

b. Criminal cases only

c. Civil as well as Criminal cases

d. Not applicable in any case

 

11. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950 extends to:

a. Such areas as may be notified by the State Government

b. The whole of India

c. The whole of Rajasthan Division

d. The whole of the State of Rajasthan

 

12. निम्न में से कौनसा अशुद्ध शब्द नहीं है?

a. प्रमाणिक

b. रचियता

c. कवियत्री

d. अन्त्याक्षरी

 

13. What is the evidentiary value of evidence given by husband against wife and vice versa under the BSA?

a. Both cannot adduce evidence

b. Both are considered one identity in law, therefore one cannot adduce evidence against the other

c. Evidence can be adduced only in criminal proceedings by both

d. Evidence can be adduced by both in civil and criminal proceedings

 

14. LICENCE शब्द का सही हिंदी रूपांतरण बताइए?

a. पट्‌ट्टा ।

b. अनुज्ञति ।

c. अनुमति पत्र ।

d. प्रत्याभूति ।

 

15. Which of the following is included in “child pornography” under POCSO?

a. Digital images created to appear/depict as a child

b. Textual descriptions of sexual acts

c. Audio recordings of threats

d. Legal documents

 

16. Section 5 applies to a person who has:

a. Been accused of an offence under the Act

b. Been acquitted under the Act

c. Already been convicted of an offence under this Chapter

d. Filed a complaint under the Act

 

17. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court raised doubts regarding the applicability of the doctrine of equitable estoppel beyond Section 121 BSA?

a. Mercantile Bank of India Ltd. v. Central Bank of India Ltd.

b. Madanappa v. Chandramma

c. Turner Morrison and Co. v. Hungerford Investment Trust Ltd.

d. Sitaram v. State of U.P.

 

18. Which of the following is not relevant under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

a. Knowledge

b. Ill-will

c. Good-will

d. Character

 

19. Under which Section of BNSS conditional order for removal of nuisance may be issued?

a. Section 149

b. Section 150

c. Section 152

d. Section 134

 

20. ________ of my friends are coming to the party.

a. Many

b. Much

c. More

d. most

 

21. Which one of the following section of BNSS provides public to give information of certain offences to the police officer?

a. Section 38

b. Section 40

c. Section 33

d. All of the above

 

22. The word “may” in Section 42(1) indicates that the power to direct a census is:

a. Mandatory

b. Compulsory

c. Automatic

d. Discretionary

 

23. निराशा का सही संधि-विच्छेद है ?

a. निर-आशा

b. निराशा

c. निर-आशा-का

d. निराशा-का

 

24. The State Government may amend the Schedule by:

a. Executive order

b. Circular

c. Notification in the Official Gazette

d. Resolution of the Legislative Assembly

 

25. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word?

Raza

a. Comfort

b. Ease

c. Ruin

d. Build

 

26. The presumption of law under Section 111A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not applicable where an offence has been committed:

a. under Section 121,121 A, 122 or 123 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

b. is committed in a disturbed area and it is shown to the Court that the accused was present in that area at that time

c. is committed against the State by fire arms or explosives in a disturbed area and it

d. is shown to the Court that the accused was present in that area at that time under Section 151,146 and 153 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

 

27. Which expression is specifically used in Section 6(b)?

a. Knows or suspects

b. Knows or apprehends

c. Knows or ought to know

d. Knows or has reason to believe

 

28. She will sing a song ________ the party.

a. In

b. at

c. For

d. with

 

29. A civil court trying a suit arising out of the same matter shall:

a. Ignore compensation paid

b. Take into account compensation paid under Section 5

c. Refund compensation

d. Double compensation

 

30. Under Section 10(2), indulging or attempting to indulge in unfair means as defined in:

a. Section 2(f)(i)

b. Section 2(f)(ii)

c. Section 2(e)

d. Section 2(d)

 

31. Select the most appropriate ANOTOYM of the given word?

PLUNGE

a. Dive

b. Duck

c. Rise

d. Fall

 

32. स्वागतम में प्रयुक्त संधि का नाम है?

a. यण संधि

b. गुण संधि

c. दीर्घ संधि

d. वृद्धि संधि

 

33. Which of the following approaches considers the criminal as a notoriously dangerous person who deserves severe punishment in order to protect the society from his criminal conduct?

a. Punitive approach

b. Therapeutic approach

c. Preventive approach

d. None of the above

 

34. Fine imposed under Section 4(1) shall be:

a. Nominal

b. Maximum

c. Just and reasonable

d. Optional

 

35. A spirit rendered unfit for human consumption as a beverage, medicine or in any other way whatsoever is known as:

a. Fermented liquor

b. Denatured spirit

c. Heritage liquor

d. Excisable article

 

36. Where the defendant is confined in a prison, the summons shall be delivered or sent to

a. the person concerned

b. the family of the person

c. the officer in charge of the prison for service on defendant

d. the advocate of the person

 

37. 'Abetment and conspiracy are inchoate offences'. The statement is

a. Correct

b. Incorrect

c. Partly correct

d. None of the above

 

38. उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है?

a. क

b. ख

c. ढ़

d. न

 

39. A person summoned to produce a document when produces the document then—

a. He becomes a witness

b. He cross-examined by both the parties

c. He is cross-examined with the permission of the court

d. He does not become witness and cannot cross-examined unless and until he is called as a witness

 

40. Section 21(2)(a) allows return of deposited arms when:

a. The depositor pays a fee

b. The depositor becomes entitled by virtue of this Act or any other law to have the same in his possession

c. The police officer approves it

d. The licence is still valid

 

41. किस युग्म में विलोमता नहीं है ?

a. अभिज्ञ-अनभिज्ञ

b. वियोग-संयोग

c. ग्राह्य-त्याज्य

d. हर्ष-विस्मय

 

42. Who among the following is authorized to issue a warrant to search for a document, parcel or other thing in the custody of the postal or telegraph authority?

1. Chief Judicial Magistrate

2. Executive Magistrate

3. Judicial Magistrate

4. District Magistrate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 and 4

 

43. The court cannot compel the parties to undergo a blood test, to establish the legitimacy of the child because it would amount to declaring Ihe mother as unchaste and child as Illegitimate. This view was laid down in which one of the following cases?

a. Pawan Kumar v. Mukesh Kumari

b. Subash v. Lata Shah

c. Ningamma v. Chikkiya

d. Gautam Kundu v. State of West Bengal

 

44. Statement can be used for:

a. Proving guilt directly

b. Contradicting witness

c. Recording FIR

d. Arresting accused

 

45. हाय । अब मैं क्या करू' किस प्रकार का आध्यय है

a. क्रिया विशेषण

b. संबंध सूचक

c. समुच्चयबोधक

d. विस्मयादिबोधक

 

46. Direction: choose the option that best fills in to complete the given sentence:

I_________ an exam for two years.

a. Hasn’t made

b. Haven’t taken

c. Hasn’t took

d. None of the above

 

47. गृहप्रवेश में कौन सा समास है?

a. कर्मधारय

b. तत्पुरुष

c. द्विगु

d. अव्ययीभाव

 

48. A, intending to cause theft instigates B, to take property belonging to Z out of Z's possession. A induces B to believe that the property belongs to A. B takes the property out of Z's possession in good faith, believing it to be A's property. With reference to the above statement.

Assertion (A): A is guilty of abetment of theft even if B is innocent.

Reason (R): Liability of abettor is not dependent on the liability of the principal accused.

Codes:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

 

49. Procedures covered under the Act include:

a. Criminal procedure only

b. Judicial review

c. Administrative procedure

d. Decisions relating to rehabilitation and re-integration

 

50. "Import" means:

a. To take out of those parts of the State of Rajasthan to which the Act extends

b. To manufacture within Rajasthan

c. To bring into those parts of the State of Rajasthan to which the Act extends

d. To export outside India

 

51. For protection under Section 130 of the BSA, the communication is to be made:

a. To a public officer in official confidence

b. To a pubic officer as an ordinary cause of his duties

c. To a public officer as a routine matter

d. Either (a) or (b) or (c)

 

52. Every officer or official exercising powers and discharging duties at a check-post shall be:

a. Licensing authority

b. Revisional authority

c. Appellate authority

d. Incharge of the check-post

 

53. Making a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe to do manual scavenging is an offence under

a. Section 3(1)(i)

b. Section 3(1)(j)

c. Section 3(1)(h)

d. Section 3(1)(k)

 

54. We've known each other ________ we were children.

a. since

b. for

c. from

d. during

 

55. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950 was made on:

a. 26th January, 1950

b. 20th March, 1950

c. 15th August, 1950

d. 1st April, 1950

 

56. The term "examination centre" includes:

a. Only rooms where candidates are seated

b. The building in which examination is conducted

c. The entire premises attached thereto

d. Only the premises owned by the Government

 

57. In order to compel appearance of a person who is absconding in spite of a warrant of arrest being issued against him, his property may be ordered to be attached simultaneously with issuance of a proclamation under Section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, provided that the court is satisfied that such person is

a. about to dispose of the whole or any part of his property.

b. about to remove the whole or any part of property from the local jurisdiction of the Court.

c. Either condition in (a) or (b) exists.

d. Both conditions in (a) and (b) coexist

 

58. Under which Section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, the confession before the Magistrate is relevant?

a. Section 24

b. Section 25

c. Section 23(2)

d. Section 27

 

59. हिन्दी में ‘कृत’ प्रत्ययों की संख्या कितनी है?

a. 12

b. 28

c. 34

d. 49

 

60. Under Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 what is not evidence in the following?

a. Personal knowledge or observation of a judge about the case during hearing

b. Statement of a dumb witness

c. Documents produced for the inspection of the court

d. Electronic C.D.

 

61. Bailable offence means:

a. Where to get bail is right

b. Where to give bail is duty of the court

c. Which is shown as bailable in the First Schedule of the BNSS or under any other law for time being in force

d. None of the above

 

62. निम्न में से सही विकल्प बाइए-

a. HONORARIUM मानदेय।

b. APPROVAL सस्तुति।

c. ACKNOWLEDGEMENT कार्यवाही।

d. OATH संदेश।

 

63. किस शब्द में उपसर्ग का प्रयोग हुआ है?

a. लिखना

b. पढ़ना

c. अनलिखना

d. बोलना

 

64. Which of the following is specifically included within the definition of "Beer"?

a. Pachari

b. Tari

c. Wine

d. Porter

 

65. किस वाक्य में निजवाचक सर्वनाम का प्रयोग नहीं हुआ है-

a. अपना-अपना कार्य करके ही घर जाना।

b. यह काम तुम स्वयं कर लो

c. आप आगे आ जाएँ।

d. वह अपने आप चला गया।

 

66. इनमें से निषेधुवाचक वाक्य है-

a. वाह। तुमने तो कमाल कर दिया।

b. सदा सत्य बोलो।

c. तुमने यह पुस्तक कब खरीदी ?

d. विद्यार्थी कक्षा में उपस्थित नहीं था।

 

67. Offences against human body are provided under which of the following chapters of BNS

a. Chapter XI

b. Chapter XII

c. Chapter XII

d. Chapter VI

 

68. Section 110 BNSS deals with:

a. Impounding of documents

b. Reciprocal arrangements regarding processes

c. Arrest without warrant

d. Search of place

 

69. The Excise Commissioner may declare an existing check-post established by another department of the State Government to be a check-post for the purposes of:

a. Section 9

b. Section 9-A

c. Section 10-A

d. Section 10

 

70. Which one of the following sections of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam defines admission?

a. Section 16

b. Section 15

c. Section 17

d. Section 18

 

71. “Authority” refers to:

a. State authority

b. Central Adoption Resource Authority

c. Juvenile Board

d. Child Welfare Committee

 

72. For me, breakfast is……………… best meal of the day.

a. a

b. an

c. the

d. none of the above

 

73. Initial detention by Magistrate can be authorised up to:

a. 7 days

b. 10 days

c. 15 days

d. 30 days

 

74. The date appointed for the commencement of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950 was:

a. 1st July, 1950

b. 20th March, 1950

c. 26th January, 1950

d. 15th August, 1950

 

75. Direction: Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

Children__________ online for more than a year now

a. Study

b. Are studying

c. Have been studying

d. Studied

 

76. Under Section 52 of the BSA, the Court shall take judicial notice of—

a. All laws in force in India

b. All laws including foreign laws

c. All Indian and Asian laws

d. All Indian and British laws up to 1950

 

77. The Act was enacted by the:

a. Parliament

b. Governor by Ordinance

c. Rajasthan State Legislature

d. Rajasthan Public Service Commission

 

78. I'll call you ________ I arrive at the airport.

a. while

b. when

c. since

d. during

 

79. The punishment for attempt under Section 18 may include:

a. Imprisonment only

b. Fine only

c. Both imprisonment and fine

d. Community service only

 

80. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word?

Lacuna

a. Hiatus

b. Apathy

c. Misfortune

d. Languor

 

81. They went to the park ________ play basketball.

a. For

b. To

c. In

d. At

 

82. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द तद्भव है?

a. अमिअ

b. उलूक

c. इष्टिका

d. कुपुत्र

 

83. A and B go with intent to kill C. A stood on guard with a spare gun in hand but did not shoot C. B killed C. Which one of the following is correct?

a. A and B both are equally -liable for murder of C

b. A is not liable as he did nothing

c. Only B is liable for murder of C

d. None of the above

 

84. The delegation under Section 43 is:

a. Permanent

b. Irrevocable

c. Judicial

d. Conditional and limited by notification

 

85. Whoever takes or entices any minor male child under the age of ......... , without the consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap person from lawful guardianship.

a. 12 years

b. 15 years

c. 16 years

d. 18 years

 

86. Consider the following statements:

To claim the benefit of provocation in reducing the liability for murder the offender must prove that the:

1. provocation was sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause a person of ordinary temper to lose his self-control.

2. provocation was grave and sudden to justify the killing

3. provocation was so grave that it would stir a desire for revenge

4. sufficient time did not elapse so as to cool down the passion

Of these statements:

a. 1 alone is correct

b. 2 and 3 are correct

c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct

d. 1, 2 and 4 are correct

 

87. Child Welfare Officer acts under directions of:

a. Government

b. Committee or Board

c. Police

d. Court

 

88. in order to attract cheating the mention to deceive must be present

a. From the very inception

b. Any time during the transaction

c. At the end of the transaction

d. None of the above

 

89. The officer in charge of police station acts as:

a. Final judge

b. Supervisory authority

c. Witness

d. Accused

 

90. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the word:

"Cancel"

a. Abolish

b. Approve

c. Allow

d. Break

 

91. With an intention to cause bodily injury, A hit B with a lathi. He gave six blows, one of which hit B on his head as a result of which B died after 20 days. A guilty of:

a. Murder

b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

c. Grievous hurt

d. Causing death by rash or negligent act.

 

92. "साध्वाचरण" शब्द का संधि विच्छेद किस क्रम में है

a. साधु + आचरण

b. साध + आचरण

c. साधव + चरण

d. साधु + चरण

 

93. Which of the following statements, as per provisions of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not correct?

a. Facts which are inconsistent with any fact in issue, shall not be relevant

b. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if by themselves or in connection with other facts, they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable

c. Any fact is relevant, which shows or constitutes a motive or preparation for any fact in issue or relevant fact

d. Admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppels under the provisions of the BSA

 

94. The suspected box, package or bale under Section 36(2) must be:

a. Stored

b. Imported

c. In transit

d. Seized

 

95. 'A' says to 'B' that he has finished his wife forever. Under BSA this statement amounts to

a. admission

b. confession

c. statement

d. all the above

 

96. A probation officer shall supervise:

a. Court clerks

b. Police officers

c. Probationers and other persons placed under his supervision

d. Only prisoners

 

97. If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Court of Session he under section 202 Cr.PC postponing the issue of process against the accused:

a. Shall commit the case to the court of Session

b. May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer

c. Shall call upon the complainant to produce all his witness and examine them on oath

d. Shall return the complaint for presentation to produce before the Court of Session

 

98. “Child” means a person who:

a. Has not completed 16 years

b. Has not completed 21 years

c. Has not completed 18 years

d. Is minor under BNS

 

99. I'm going to the store. Do you want ________?

a. come with me

b. coming with me

c. to come with me

d. came with me

 

100. If a person fails to give security, he shall:

a. Be fined

b. Be imprisoned or detained

c. Be released

d. Be warned