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UPSC CBI APP & PP MOCK TEST-5
Time Duration - 2:00 Hour
Total Marks – 300
Negative Marking – ½
1. Which section of the DSPE Act specifically addresses the Central Government's power to specify the offenses to be investigated by the special police establishment via notification?
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
2. Under section 6A of the DSPE Act the issue of the retrospective application of the Subramanian Swamy judgment was specifically decided in which later Supreme Court case?
a. CBI v. R.R. Kishore (2023)
b. Lalita Kumari v. Government of U.P. (2014)
c. Common Cause v. Union of India (2017)
d. Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998)
3. What was Section 7 of the DSPE Act regarding?
a. Establishment of the CBI
b. Repeal of an earlier Ordinance
c. Powers of the Director
d. Interpretation of the Act
4. In the context of investigation under the Act, the power to investigate an offense committed by a public servant is vested in a police officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police. This is a procedural requirement under which section of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
a. Section 17.
b. Section 18.
c. Section 19.
d. Section 20.
5. In the landmark case of CBI v. R.R. Kishore, the Supreme Court upheld the retrospective application of the invalidation of Section 6A of the DSPE Act. This decision means that the CBI can investigate cases of corruption against high-ranking officials without prior government approval for offenses committed between:
a. 2014 and 2023.
b. 2003 and 2014.
c. 1988 and 2003.
d. Before 1988.
6. Which section of the Prevention of Corruption Act deals with appeal and revision?
a. Section 7
b. Section 19
c. Section 27
d. Section 31
7. The requirement of sanction under Section 19 applies to which offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act?
a. All offences.
b. Only bribery offences.
c. Offences punishable under sections 7, 11, 13 and 15.
d. Only offences punishable with a fine.
8. Section 9 of the Prevention of Corruption Act primarily makes it an offense for a:
a. Public servant
b. Private citizen
c. Commercial organization
d. Non-profit organization
9. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the legal status of the Commission constituted under the CVC Act, 2003, with respect to its predecessor entities?
a. The CVC established under the Act supersedes and terminates the existence of the body constituted under the 1999 Ordinance.
b. The CVC constituted under the 1999 Ordinance is deemed to be the Commission constituted under the 2003 Act, ensuring continuity.
c. The CVC Act, 2003, mandates a fresh constitution of the Commission, nullifying all previous appointments.
d. The 2003 Act provides for a separate, parallel vigilance body to function alongside the one from the 1999 Ordinance.
10. What is the tenure of the Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) under Section 5(1)?
a. The CVC holds office for a term of four years or until the age of sixty-five years.
b. The CVC holds office for a fixed term of four years and may be eligible for an extension.
c. The CVC holds office for four years from the date of assuming office or until reaching sixty-five years of age, whichever is earlier.
d. The CVC holds office for a term determined by the President, not exceeding four years.
11. What specific information must be included as a separate part of the CVC's annual report?
a. Details of all pending court cases.
b. The functioning of the Delhi Special Police Establishment (CBI) in relation to its anti-corruption work.
c. A list of all officers investigated by the Commission.
d. The financial audit of the Commission.
12. Which body refers cases for preliminary inquiry to the Central Vigilance Commission, which are then handled by the Director of Inquiry?
a. The Central Government
b. The Lokpal
c. The Central Bureau of Investigation
d. The Supreme Court
13. Who presides over a meeting of the Central Vigilance Commission if the Central Vigilance Commissioner is unable to attend the meeting?
a. The Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. A Vigilance Commissioner chosen by a majority vote
c. The senior-most Vigilance Commissioner
d. Both (a) and (c)
14. Section 2(a) of the Competition Act, 2002 defines "acquisition." Which of the following could be subject to regulation under the Competition Act?
a. Acquiring shares of an enterprise.
b. Acquiring voting rights in an enterprise.
c. Acquiring or agreeing to acquire control over an enterprise.
d. All of the above.
15. After the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023, if an enterprise that is part of a "group" contravenes the Act, the CCI can pass orders under Section 27 of the Competition Act, 2002 against which members?
a. Only the specific enterprise that was in contravention.
b. Only the holding company of the group.
c. Against other members of the group who are also responsible for or contributed to the contravention.
d. Only the members of the board of directors.
16. Which section of the Competition Act, 2002 deals with “Issue of statement of objections by Commission and proposal of modifications”?
a. Section 29A
b. Section 29
c. Section 28
d. Section 27
17. Section 32 of the Competition Act, 2002 allows the CCI to act even if a company abusing its dominant position is located where?
a. Only in India.
b. In a country with a similar competition law.
c. Outside India.
d. In a country that has a trade agreement with India.
18. Section 39 of the Competition Act, 2002 deals with which aspect of the CCI's orders?
a. How to appeal the orders.
b. How to execute (collect) monetary penalties.
c. How to initiate an inquiry.
d. How to define "turnover".
19. A person can file an appeal to the NGT under Section 5A of the EPA, 1986 if they are aggrieved by a direction issued under Section 5 on or after what specific date?
a. The commencement of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
b. The commencement of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
c. January 1, 2000.
d. November 19, 1986.
20. What is the relationship between the officers appointed under Section 4 and any authority constituted under Section 3(3) of the EPA, 1986?
a. The officers report directly to the Supreme Court, bypassing any Section 3(3) authority.
b. The officers are independent of any authority constituted under Section 3(3).
c. The officers are also subject to the general control and direction of the Section 3(3) authority, if the Central Government so directs.
d. The officers can only act in areas where a Section 3(3) authority does not exist.
21. Can a State Government issue directions under Section 5 of the EPA, 1986?
a. Yes, automatically.
b. Yes, if the Central Government delegates the power to them under Section 23.
c. No, this power is exclusively held by the Central Government.
d. Only during a state of emergency.
22. Under Section 9(2) of the EPA, 1986, which authority has the power to take remedial measures if the occupier fails to do so?
a. A private environmental agency
b. Any individual citizen
c. The authorities or agencies prescribed under Section 9(1)
d. The local health department
23. The minimum additional penalty per day for continued contravention under Section 14A(2) of the EPA, 1986 shall not be less than:
a. Ten thousand rupees
b. Fifty thousand rupees
c. One lakh rupees
d. Five lakh rupees
24. The presumption created under Section 23 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 can be rebutted to the satisfaction of which authority?
a. The High Court
b. The Special Court or the Adjudicating Authority
c. The Director of Enforcement
d. The Central Government
25. The Explanation to Section 44 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 clarifies that a "prosecution complaint" can be deemed to include any subsequent complaint regarding:
a. New offenses
b. Further investigation
c. A new accused
d. A different scheduled offense
26. Under Section 52 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002, the Central Government has the power to issue directions, but it cannot interfere with the discretion of which body?
a. The Enforcement Directorate
b. The Director
c. The Adjudicating Authority
d. The Special Court
27. Reciprocal arrangements for processes and assistance for transfer of accused persons for the purposes of the PMLA are dealt with under which section?
a. Section 50
b. Section 59
c. Section 53
d. Section 56
28. An officer impounding records under Section 50(5) of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 must do what before impounding them?
a. Obtain a court order
b. Obtain permission from the Director
c. Record the reasons for doing so in writing
d. Inform the person whose records are being impounded
29. What is the maximum permitted gap between two consecutive Board meetings in a year under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. 90 days
b. 120 days
c. 150 days
d. 180 days
30. Who has the authority to maintain a panel of experts to be called as mediators or conciliators under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. The High Court
b. The Supreme Court
c. The Central Government
d. The Company Law Board
31. If a fraudulent strike-off application is made to evade liabilities, who are the responsible persons jointly and severally liable to under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. The Central Government
b. The Registrar of Companies
c. Any person who incurred loss or damage
d. The National Company Law Tribunal
32. Section 210 of the Companies Act, 2013 primarily deals with:
a. Annual Returns of the company.
b. Appointment of Directors.
c. Investigation into the affairs of a company.
d. Winding up of a company.
33. Section 220 of the Companies Act, 2013 gives the power to seize documents to:
a. The Registrar of Companies.
b. The Central Government.
c. An inspector appointed under the Act.
d. Any creditor of the company.
34. Section 232 of the Companies Act, 2013, mainly deals with:
a. The issue of shares.
b. The appointment of directors.
c. Mergers and amalgamations.
d. The powers of the Registrar.
35. An Indian company wants to merge with a foreign company. This process is governed by which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
a. Section 230
b. Section 232
c. Section 233
d. Section 234
36. For a cross-border merger involving a foreign company, whose prior approval is required under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. The Central Government.
b. The Registrar of Companies (RoC).
c. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
d. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
37. The concept of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is covered under which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
a. Section 134
b. Section 135
c. Section 136
d. Section 137
38. Section 270 of the Companies Act, 2013, which was substituted by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, refers to winding up:
a. Only voluntarily
b. Only by the Tribunal
c. Both by the Tribunal and voluntary
d. By the Registrar
39. A company may be wound up by the Tribunal if it has defaulted in filing its financial statements or annual returns for immediately preceding:
a. Two consecutive financial years
b. Three consecutive financial years
c. Five consecutive financial years
d. Seven consecutive financial years
40. According to Section 2(71) of the Companies Act, 2013, a "public company" is defined as a company that is not a:
a. Government company
b. Small company
c. Private company
d. Listed company
41. According to Section 2(62) of the Companies Act, 2013, a "One Person Company" means a company which has only one person as a:
a. Director
b. Promoter
c. Member
d. Shareholder
42. According to Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013, the share capital of a company limited by shares shall be of how many kinds?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
43. Section 53 of the Companies Act, 2013 prohibits a company from issuing shares at a:
a. Premium
b. Discount
c. Par value
d. Higher value
44. Section 63 of the Companies Act, 2013 allows a company to issue fully paid-up bonus shares from which of the following?
a. Free reserves
b. Securities Premium Account
c. Capital Redemption Reserve Account
d. All of the above
45. Section 17 of the Companies Act, 2013 primarily relates to:
a. Issuance of shares
b. Appointment of directors
c. Furnishing of copies of Memorandum and Articles
d. Annual General Meetings
46. Which Exception of sec 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed without premeditation in a sudden fight in the heat of passion upon a sudden quarrel and without the offender’s having taken undue advantage or acted in a cruel or unusual manner?
a. Exception 2
b. Exception 4
c. Exception 5
d. Exception 1
47. “Offence" is defined under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 2(23)
b. Section 2(24)
c. Section 2(25)
d. Section 2(26)
48. The punishment for murder under the BNS is:
a. Imprisonment for life
b. Imprisonment for life and a fine
c. Death or imprisonment for life, and a fine
d. Rigorous imprisonment for up to ten years
49. Under which section of the BNS is the general provision for punishing attempts to commit offenses punishable with imprisonment?
a. Section 45
b. Section 62
c. Section 303
d. Section 306
50. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box. When he opens the box, he finds no jewels. According to the illustrations provided in the BNS, is A guilty of attempting to commit theft?
a. No, because the offense was impossible to complete.
b. Yes, because he did an act towards the commission of theft.
c. No, because he did not commit a theft.
d. Yes, but only if he also caused harm to the property owner.
51. A attempts to pick Z's pocket by thrusting his hand into Z's pocket. Z, however, has nothing in his pocket. Which of the following is the most accurate description of A's legal position under the BNS?
a. A is not guilty of any offense as the intended crime was impossible.
b. A is guilty of an attempt to commit theft, with punishment under Section 62.
c. A is guilty of preparation to commit theft, which is not punishable.
d. A is guilty of a completed theft, as intent was proven.
52. Death caused without premeditation in a sudden fight in the heat of passion is:
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Negligence
d. Criminal trespass
53. Which of the following is considered the legal basis for the general exception concerning trifles (minor harm) under the BNS?
a. The principle of "minimum punishment."
b. The legal maxim de minimis non curat lex, meaning the law does not concern itself with trifles.
c. The principle of restorative justice.
d. The concept of first-time offenders.
54. If a person acts with "good faith," as defined by the BNS, what is a key element of their conduct?
a. The act is done without any intention to harm.
b. The person is unaware of any potential harm.
c. The act is done with due care and attention.
d. The person acts on the advice of a legal expert.
55. If a person acts with "good faith," as defined by the BNS, what is a key element of their conduct?
a. The act is done without any intention to harm.
b. The person is unaware of any potential harm.
c. The act is done with due care and attention.
d. The person acts on the advice of a legal expert.
56. What is the general rule under the BNS regarding an act done by a child between seven and twelve years old?
a. The child is never criminally liable.
b. The child is criminally liable if the act is serious.
c. The child is not criminally liable if they have not attained sufficient maturity to understand the nature and consequences of the act.
d. The child is criminally liable but with a lesser punishment.
57. Under the BNS, if a person cause harm by accident while doing a lawful act in a lawful manner, with proper care and caution, what is the legal consequence?
a. The person is guilty of a minor offense.
b. The person is still held responsible for the harm caused.
c. The act is not an offence.
d. The person must pay compensation but is not criminally liable.
58. What is the “document” under sec 2(8) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. A cheque upon a banker
b. A power-of-attorney
c. A writing containing directions or instructions
d. All of the above
59. When does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 received the assent of the President?
a. 25th December, 2022
b. 26th December, 2023
c. 25th December, 2024
d. 25th December, 2023
60. Section 45 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defines abetment of a thing. Which of the following is NOT a recognized mode of abetment under this section?
a. Instigation
b. Conspiracy
c. Intentional aiding
d. Mere knowledge of offence being committed
61. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with “Dishonest or fraudulent execution of deed of transfer containing false statement of consideration”?
a. Section 322
b. Section 323
c. Section 324
d. Section 325
62. New offences of mob lynching and snatching have been made punishable in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
a. Section 101 (2) and section 304
b. Section 103 (2) and section 305
c. Section 103 (2) and section 304
d. Section 102 (2) and section 304
63. Which section of the BNSS grants a police officer the power to seize offensive weapons from an arrested person?
a. Section 50
b. Section 51
c. Section 52
d. Section 53
64. Which section of the BNSS addresses the establishment of the Court of Session?
a. Section 7
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
65. Which clause of Section 2 of BNSS defines “electronic communication”?
a. Section 2(a)
b. Section 2(c)
c. Section 2(j)
d. Section 2(i)
66. Which section of the BNSS states that an arrested person must be informed of the grounds for arrest and, if the offence is bailable, of the right to obtain bail?
a. Section 47
b. Section 35
c. Section 41
d. Section 50
67. Under BNSS Section 101, upon a complaint made on oath regarding the unlawful detention of a woman or female child, which authority may issue an order for their immediate restoration?
a. The Superintendent of Police
b. The High Court
c. District Magistrate, Sub-divisional Magistrate, or Magistrate of the first class
d. The Central Government
68. Claims or objections regarding property attachment under Section 85 must be filed under Section 87 of BNSS within how many months from the attachment date?
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
69. Who can make an arrest under Section 41 of the BNSS?
a. Only a Judicial Magistrate
b. Only an Executive Magistrate
c. Both a Judicial and an Executive Magistrate
d. Any police officer, but not a Magistrate
70. Under Section 210(1)(b) of BNSS, how may a Magistrate take cognizance of an offence based on a police report?
a. Only when the report is submitted physically.
b. Only if the report is submitted in electronic mode.
c. Upon receiving a police report submitted in any mode, including electronic.
d. The Magistrate cannot take cognizance based on a police report.
71. An advocate regularly practices in the Magistrate's Court of a certain city. According to Section 526 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where is this advocate NOT allowed to sit as a Magistrate?
a. In any court in a different city.
b. In the High Court of that state.
c. In the very same Magistrate's Court where they practice.
d. In the Sessions Court of that city.
72. Under Section 514 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the limitation period for a court to take cognizance of an offense punishable with a fine only?
a. Three years
b. One year
c. Six months
d. No limitation period
73. A Magistrate who is not legally allowed to tender a pardon mistakenly grants one. Which condition is necessary under Section 506 of BNSS, 2023, for the pardon not to be invalidated?
a. A higher court must approve the pardon.
b. The accused must accept the pardon.
c. The Magistrate must have acted "in good faith".
d. The victim must have approved the pardon.
74. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of a "judicial proceeding" as defined in Section 2(1)(m) of the BNSS?
a. It must result in a final judgment.
b. It must be presided over by a High Court judge.
c. It involves the possibility of evidence being legally taken under oath.
d. It can only be initiated by a public prosecutor.
75. If a person submits a complaint via electronic communication, what must they do to formalize it, as per Section 173(1) of the BNSS, 2023?
a. Provide a digital signature within 24 hours.
b. Follow up with a handwritten letter within seven days.
c. Sign the information within three days.
d. Appear in person at the police station immediately.
76. What happens if a case involves two or more offenses, and at least one of them is a cognizable offense, according to Section 174(4) of the BNSS?
a. The police must get a Magistrate's order to investigate any non-cognizable offense in the case.
b. The case is treated as a non-cognizable case.
c. The entire case is treated as a cognizable case.
d. The cognizable offense is investigated separately from the non-cognizable one.
77.What does Section 182 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, specifically prohibit?
a. The use of physical force to obtain a confession.
b. Police officers from offering any inducement, threat, or promise to influence a person's statement.
c. The recording of a statement during an interrogation.
d. Any person under investigation from seeking legal counsel.
78. Which provision of BNSS, 2023 deals with “Cancellation of bond and bail bond”?
a. Section 493
b. Section 490
c. Section 491
d. Section 492
79. Which court's inherent powers are primarily saved and recognized under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023?
a. The Supreme Court
b. The Sessions Court
c. The High Court
d. The District Court
80. What is "Primary Evidence" as defined in Section 57 of the BSA?
a. Copies of the original document.
b. The document itself produced for the inspection of the Court.
c. Oral accounts of the document's contents.
d. Electronic records that are not the original.
81. The question is whether a particular letter was dispatched. According to Section 14, which fact would be relevant?
a. The sender's intent to send the letter.
b. The fact that the letter was put in a place where all letters were ordinarily put for dispatch.
c. The fact that the recipient denied receiving the letter.
d. The emotional state of the sender while writing the letter.
82. Under Section 60 of the BSA, when can secondary evidence of a document be given?
a. Only if the judge allows it based on personal discretion.
b. Only if the document is an electronic record.
c. Only in cases specified in the Act (e.g., original is lost, destroyed, or withheld).
d. Always, secondary evidence is equal to primary evidence.
83. Under Section 87 of the BSA, the Court shall presume, unless the contrary is proved, that the information listed in a Digital Signature Certificate is __________.
a. False
b. Misleading
c. Correct
d. Unreliable
84. When a document's language applies partly to one set of facts and partly to another, but not wholly to either, which section allows evidence to be given to show which set of facts it was intended to apply to?
a. Section 97
b. Section 98
c. Section 99
d. Section 100
85. Section 101 of the BSA deals with evidence to explain which kind of characters in a document?
a. Plain and understandable characters
b. Illegible or unintelligible characters, or technical/local/provincial terms
c. Characters written in English only
d. Standard legal terms
86. According to Section 169 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the improper admission or rejection of evidence shall:
a. Be grounds for a new trial or reversal of the decision.
b. Not, of itself, be grounds for a new trial or reversal of the decision.
c. Invalidate the entire trial proceedings from the beginning.
d. Automatically lead to the acquittal of the accused
87. Section 162 primarily deals with which concept?
a. Leading questions
b. Refreshing memory
c. Expert opinion
d. Corroboration of evidence
88. Under Section 104 of the BSA, who has the "burden of proof"?
a. The plaintiff in a civil case
b. The prosecution in a criminal case
c. Whoever desires the Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which they assert
d. The defendant or accused person
89. Under Section 106, the burden of proving a particular fact lies on:
a. The person against whom the fact is alleged
b. The person who is legally bound by the fact
c. The person who wishes the Court to believe in its existence
d. The police officer investigating the case
90. Which individuals are compelled to give evidence even if it means disclosing confidential communication during marriage under Section 128?
a. Spouses during their marriage
b. Legal advisors
c. Judges
d. Bankers
91. Section 138 of the BSA relates to which type of witness, stating they are a competent witness against an accused person?
a. Child witness
b. Hostile witness
c. Accomplice
d. Expert witness
92. Section 116 of the BSA provides a conclusive presumption regarding which relationship?
a. Partnership
b. Marriage
c. Legitimacy of a child born during the continuance of a valid marriage (or within 280 days of its dissolution)
d. Agency
93. Under Section 111 of the BSA, when the question is whether a man is alive or dead, and he has not been heard of for how many years by those who would naturally have heard of him, the burden of proving he is alive shifts to the person affirming it?
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 12 years
94. In compelling a witness to answer under Section 150, which other section's provisions are also applicable?
a. Section 137
b. Section 140
c. Section 152
d. Section 148
95. Under which clause of Section 52(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, would the court take judicial notice of the seal of a Notary Public?
a. Clause (d)
b. Clause (f)
c. Clause (e)
d. Clause (h)
96. The illustration under Section 44 mentions that in a question of whether A and B were married, the fact that they were usually treated as husband and wife by their friends is relevant. This is an example of which principle?
a. Conclusive proof.
b. Opinion expressed by conduct.
c. Expert opinion.
d. Hearsay evidence.
97. Which constitutional amendment act Conferred constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes
a. 99 Constitution amendment Act 2014
b. 100 Constitution amendment Act 2015
c. 101 Constitution amendment Act 2016
d. 102 Constitution amendment Act 2018
98. Which constitutional amendment reduced the voting rights from 21 years to 18 years?
a. Sixtieth Amendment Act, 1988
b. Sixty-Second Amendment Act, 1989
c. Sixty-Third Amendment Act, 1989
d. Sixty-First Amendment Act, 1989
99. Article 74 and 75 deals with
a. The President of India
b. Parliamentary form of government at the centre
c. Establishment and Constitution of Supreme Court
d. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
100. The Constitution of India allows minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of…………………. ceases to be a minister.
a. Six consecutive months
b. Three consecutive months
c. Twelve consecutive months
d. Nine consecutive months
101. Article 74 of the Indian Constitution deals with
a. Constitution of Parliament
b. Council of ministers to aid and advise President
c. Attorney-General for India
d. Annual financial statement (budget)
102. The Constitution of India divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in which schedule?
a. Seventh Schedule
b. Eighth Schedule
c. Ninth Schedule
d. Tenth Schedule
103. While the proclamation of national emergency (under Article 352) is in operation, who can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states?
a. Parliament of India
b. Supreme court of India
c. President of India
d. Finance Commission
104. Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission
1. Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission
2. It is a quasi-judicial body
3. It is constituted by the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code below
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. All of the above
105. The President establishes an Inter-State Council under which article to investigate and discuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states?
a. Article 263
b. Article 262
c. Article 261
d. Article 260
106. Who acts as chairman of inter – state council?
a. Prime minister
b. President
c. Home minister
d. Vice president
107. Articles 301 to 307 (Part XIII) of the Constitution deals with
a. Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
b. Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India
c. Tribunals
d. Services under the Union and the States
108. Which article deals with the pardoning powers of president?
a. Article 72
b. Article 143
c. Article 123
d. Article 76
109. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Article 52 – The President of India
b. Article 55 – manner of presidential election
c. Article 60 – Procedure for impeachment of the President
d. Article 111 – Assent to bills passed by the Parliament
110. Who presides over the council of states?
a. President
b. Vice-President
c. Home minister
d. Chief Justice of India
111. The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by
a. President
b. Chief Justice of India
c. Prime minister
d. A person appointed by Election Commission
112. The total number of ministers including the prime ministers shall not exceed
a. 10% members of the Lok sabha
b. 15% members of the Lok sabha
c. 20% members of the Lok sabha
d. 25% members of the Lok sabha
113. Which case is most closely associated with the Supreme Court's pronouncement on the concept of 'Constitutional Morality'?
a. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
b. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
c. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
d. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
114. Section 35(2) mandates a fee with the application. The Central Government prescribes this fee, but the Act sets a maximum. What was the maximum fee amount originally specified in the section?
a. Fifty thousand rupees
b. Ten thousand rupees
c. One lakh rupees
d. Twenty-five thousand rupees
115. Which clause in Section 43 specifically addresses "denial of access" (which is the basis for a DoS or DDoS attack claim)?
a. Section 43(d)
b. Section 43(e)
c. Section 43(f)
d. Section 43(c)
116. Section 43A imposes liability specifically on a "body corporate". According to the explanation provided within Section 43A itself, a "body corporate" includes a company, firm, or sole proprietorship engaged in what kind of activities?
a. Only commercial activities
b. Only professional activities
c. Non-profit or social activities only
d. Commercial or professional activities
117. A person aggrieved by an order of the Controller or an Adjudicating Officer must file an appeal within what period from the date of receiving a copy of the order?
a. Thirty days
b. Sixty days
c. Forty-five days
d. Ninety days
118. Section 64 provides the primary mechanism for the recovery of unpaid amounts. What specific legal mechanism is used to recover the unpaid penalty or compensation?
a. As a bank loan through the Reserve Bank of India.
b. Through attachment and sale of movable property by police.
c. As a civil debt through standard court execution procedures.
d. As an arrear of land revenue.
119. Section 70A(2) states that the designated national nodal agency is responsible for all measures related to the protection of CII. This includes a specific, forward-looking function. What is that function?
a. International liaison with foreign CERTs.
b. Research and Development (R&D).
c. Issuing advisories to the general public.
d. Prosecuting offenders involved in cyber terrorism.
120. What is the maximum imprisonment prescribed for an offense under Section 71?
a. Up to five years
b. Up to two years
c. Up to seven years
d. Up to three years
