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UPSC CBI APP & PP MOCK TEST-2
Time Duration – 2:00 Hour
Total Marks – 300
Negative Marking – ½
1. According to the DSPE Act, what is the role of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) in the selection process for officers of the rank of Superintendent of Police and above?
a. The CVC is the final approving authority for these appointments.
b. The CVC prepares the list of eligible officers for consideration.
c. Section 4C of the Act outlines a procedure where the CVC is involved in the recommendation for appointment, extension, and curtailment of tenure of such officers.
d. The CVC plays no role in the appointment of CBI officers.
2. Under Section 4(1) of the DSPE Act, 1946, who is vested with the superintendence of the Delhi Special Police Establishment (CBI) in the investigation of offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
a. The Central Government
b. The Director of the CBI
c. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
d. The Supreme Court of India
3. What is the Act no. of the DSPE Act, 1946?
a. ACT No. 28 OF 1946
b. ACT No. 25 OF 1946
c. ACT No. 24 OF 1946
d. ACT No. 22 OF 1946
4. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 came into force on:
a. 9th September 1988
b. 1st January 1989
c. 9th November 1988
d. 26th January 1989
5. The presumption of guilt under Section 20 of Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 arises when a public servant accepts gratification. This presumption is in favor of:
a. The accused, who must prove their innocence.
b. The prosecution, who must prove the accused is guilty.
c. The accused, who needs to disprove the motive or reward.
d. The prosecution, who needs to prove the accused's intent.
6. What is the maximum time frame stipulated by the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 for the completion of a trial by a Special Judge?
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. There is no specific time frame mentioned in the Act.
7. If an accused person under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 wishes to give evidence in their own defence, are they allowed?
a. No, the law forbids it.
b. Yes, the accused is a competent defence witness.
c. Only with the permission of the prosecution.
d. Only if they are a low-ranking official.
8. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 was enacted to replace the previous Act of:
a. 1941
b. 1947
c. 1963
d. 1980
9. Under Section 6, the President can remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner on the ground of misbehavior. For this to happen, an inquiry must be conducted by whom?
a. A High Court designated by the President
b. A Committee of Inquiry appointed by the Parliament
c. The Supreme Court
d. The Chief Justice of India
10. To whom does the Central Vigilance Commission present its annual report?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The President
c. The Minister of Home Affairs
d. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
11. Who appoints the Director of Inquiry under Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003?
a. The Central Vigilance Commission
b. The Prime Minister
c. The Central Government
d. The Lokpal
12. Where are the proceedings of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) normally held?
a. At a location decided by the President
b. At its headquarters
c. At a place determined by the Central Government
d. In the Supreme Court
13. While conducting an inquiry, the Central Vigilance Commission has the powers of which type of court?
a. A High Court
b. A Criminal Court
c. A Civil Court
d. The Supreme Court
14. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 53A of the Competition Act, 2002 hears appeals against CCI orders. An appeal against a decision of the NCLAT lies to which body, and within what timeframe, as per Section 53T?
a. High Court, within 60 days.
b. Supreme Court, within 45 days.
c. Supreme Court, within 60 days.
d. High Court, within 90 days.
15. The composition of the Competition Commission of India (CCI) is detailed in which section of the Competition Act, 2002?
a. Section 7
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
16. The expression "relevant market," as defined in Section 2(r) of the Competition Act, 2002, is determined by which of the following factors?
a. Relevant geographic market and relevant product market.
b. The total market size and the number of competitors.
c. The total market revenue and profit margin of an enterprise.
d. The product market and the demographic market.
17. The presumption of "appreciable adverse effect on competition" (AAEC) under Section 3(3) of the Competition Act, 2002 for certain horizontal agreements does not apply to:
a. An agreement among competitors to determine purchase prices.
b. A joint venture agreement that increases efficiency in production or supply.
c. An agreement among competitors to limit or control production.
d. An agreement among competitors to share a market by allocating geographical areas.
18. Under Section 19(1) of the Competition Act, 2002, which of the following is a correct ground for the Competition Commission of India (CCI) to initiate an inquiry?
a. On receipt of an oral complaint from a consumer regarding a minor market irregularity.
b. Suo moto, based on the CCI's own knowledge or information.
c. On receipt of a reference from a trade association that is not a registered entity.
d. none of the above
19. Under Section 3(2) of the EPA, 1986, the measures the Central Government may take include:
a. Planning and executing a nationwide program for pollution control.
b. Laying down standards for the quality of the environment.
c. Restricting areas where industries can operate.
d. All of the above.
20. According to Section 2(a) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the term "environment" includes:
a. Water, air, and land
b. The inter-relationship among and between water, air, and land
c. Human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organisms, and property
d. All of the above
21. What does Section 4(1) of the EPA, 1986 state about the powers and functions of appointed officers?
a. That their powers are limited to environmental inspection.
b. That the Central Government "may" entrust them with powers and functions.
c. That they have no investigative powers.
d. That their powers are restricted to local areas only.
22. Section 9(3) of the EPA, 1986 states that the amount of expenses incurred by the authorities can be recovered from the occupier as:
a. A grant-in-aid
b. A loan from the Central Bank
c. Arrears of land revenue or a public demand
d. A voluntary donation
23. Section 14A of the EPA, 1986, was inserted into the Act to provide specific penalties for contraventions of which other sections?
a. Sections 3 and 4
b. Sections 9 and 10
c. Sections 7 and 8
d. Sections 5 and 6
24. The offense of money laundering is defined under which section of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002?
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
25. A Director, Deputy Director, or Assistant Director can make an arrest under Section 19 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 if they believe the person is guilty of an offense under the Act.
a. Has been involved in a transaction with a Reporting Entity.
b. Has concealed their identity.
c. Is guilty of an offense punishable under this Act.
d. Has not provided a statement to the authorities.
26. An authority conducting a search under Section 17 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 may:
a. Break open the lock of any door, box, locker, safe, or almirah if the key is not available.
b. Call for a Magistrate's order for a search.
c. Issue a search warrant to the person in possession.
d. Only search with the consent of the premises owner.
27. Who is entitled to obtain copies of the records that have been seized or frozen under the PMLA, as per Section 21 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002?
a. Only the Director of Enforcement
b. The person from whom the records were seized or frozen
c. The Adjudicating Authority
d. The Special Court
28. What is the key distinction between "property" and "proceeds of crime" under the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002?
a. There is no legal distinction; the terms are used interchangeably.
b. "Property" is a broader term encompassing all assets, while "proceeds of crime" is a subset of property derived from criminal activity related to a scheduled offense.
c. Only "property" can be confiscated, while "proceeds of crime" can only be attached.
d. "Proceeds of crime" is limited to cash, whereas "property" includes all other assets.
29. Which of the following companies must constitute an Audit Committee under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. Every public company with a paid-up share capital of Rs. 1 crore or more.
b. Every listed public company.
c. All private limited companies.
d. All companies registered under the Companies Act, 2013.
30. Offences punishable under the Companies Act, 2013, with imprisonment of two years or more are triable only by the:
a. High Court
b. District Court
c. Special Court
d. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
31. The NCLT was established under which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
a. Section 406
b. Section 408
c. Section 410
d. Section 415
32. A person is qualified for appointment as a Technical Member of the NCLT if they have been in practice as a chartered accountant, company secretary, or cost accountant for a period of at least:
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. 20 years
33. What percentage of members' consent (by paid-up share capital) is needed for a voluntary strike-off application?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 100%
34. Under the Companies Act, 2013, the Tribunal can refuse a winding-up order under the "just and equitable" ground if it believes the petitioner has another remedy available and is acting unreasonably. This power is derived from:
a. Section 273(1)(e)
b. Section 273(2)
c. Section 272(3)
d. Section 271(e)
35. Under Section 7 of the Companies Act, 2013, what is the professional declaration (e.g., from a Company Secretary or Chartered Accountant) required to confirm during incorporation?
a. That all subscribers have paid for their shares in full.
b. That all requirements of the Act for registration have been complied with.
c. That the company will be profitable within five years.
d. That the company's AoA does not conflict with its MoA.
36. If a company defaults in circulating the altered MoA or AoA as required by Section 15 of the Companies Act, 2013, what is the maximum penalty for the company?
a. ₹1,000 for every copy issued in default.
b. ₹50,000 for each default.
c. ₹1 lakh fine on the company.
d. Imprisonment for the officer in default.
37. Where is the penalty for personation prominently reproduced, as per Section 38 of the Companies Act, 2013?
a. In the Annual Report.
b. In every prospectus and application form for securities.
c. On the company's website.
d. At the company's registered office.
38. Under the Companies Act, 2013, the minimum subscription must be received within how many days of the prospectus's issue?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
39. A company issues a prospectus and subsequently fails to apply for permission for its securities to be dealt with on a recognized stock exchange before the issue. What is the consequence?
a. The issue of securities is valid, but the company must pay a penalty.
b. The issue of securities is deemed to be void.
c. The stock exchange can levy a penalty on the company.
d. Any allotment of securities made is valid, but the company cannot deal in them.
40. According to Section 41 of the Companies Act, 2013, which resolution is required for a company to issue Global Depository Receipts (GDRs)?
a. An ordinary resolution is sufficient.
b. A special resolution is required.
c. Only a Board Resolution is needed.
d. No resolution is necessary, as it is an overseas matter.
41. A company receives payments from certain shareholders for their unpaid share capital, even though the company has not yet made a call. This is permissible only if:
a. Authorized by the board of directors.
b. Authorized by the Articles of Association (AoA).
c. Approved by a special resolution.
d. Approved by the Central Government.
42. Under the Companies Act, 2013, Calls for further share capital on the shares of a particular class must be made on a:
a. Fair basis.
b. Equitable basis.
c. Uniform basis.
d. Pro-rata basis.
43. A company wants to vary the rights of a particular class of shareholders. The procedure for this is governed by the provisions of the Companies Act. What is the minimum consent required from the shareholders of the class being affected?
a. Two-thirds in value of the shareholders of that class.
b. Three-fourths in value of the shareholders of that class.
c. Special resolution passed by the company in general meeting.
d. Approval of the Tribunal is mandatory.
44. As per Section 44 of the Companies Act, 2013, shares, debentures, or other interests of any member in a company are considered to be:
a. Immovable property.
b. Movable property.
c. Assets of the company.
d. Liabilities of the company.
45. A company's official letterhead contains a statement of its authorized capital but omits the subscribed and paid-up capital. What is the penalty for this default?
a. A penalty of ₹10,000 for the company and ₹5,000 for each defaulting officer.
b. A penalty of ₹50,000 for the company and ₹25,000 for each defaulting officer.
c. A penalty of ₹1,000 for the company and ₹500 for each defaulting officer.
d. A penalty of ₹1,000 for the company and ₹500 for each defaulting officer, for every day the default continues.
46. A company wants to issue bonus shares. Out of which reserve is it prohibited from issuing bonus shares?
a. Free Reserves.
b. Capital Redemption Reserve Account.
c. Securities Premium Account.
d. Reserves created by the revaluation of assets.
47. According to Section 171 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, interfering with the free exercise of any electoral right is known as:
a. Bribery
b. Corruption
c. Undue influence
d. Personation
48. How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, contain?
a. 511
b. 358
c. 475
d. 505
49. Under Section 8(1) of the BNS, the amount of fine for an offense can be:
a. Limited and fixed by the court.
b. Unlimited, but it must not be excessive.
c. Fixed based on the severity of the crime.
d. Always a fixed amount determined by law.
50. A, a man, has sexual intercourse with a woman by falsely promising to marry her. What is the newly introduced offence in the BNS that covers this act?
a. Deceitful sexual intercourse.
b. Sexual intercourse by fraudulent means.
c. Rape under Section 69.
d. Cruelty under Section 86.
51. A, a foreign national, commits an offense on an Indian registered ship on the high seas. The ship later docks at a port in India. Can A be tried under the BNS?
a. Yes, because the BNS has jurisdiction over offenses committed on Indian ships anywhere.
b. No, because A is a foreign national, and the offense occurred outside Indian territory.
c. Yes, but only if there is a mutual treaty with A's home country.
d. No, because the BNS only applies to Indian citizens for offenses committed outside India.
52. A, being legally bound to produce a document before a District Court, intentionally omits to produce the same. A has committed the offence under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 209
b. Section 210
c. Section 211
d. Section 212
53. A, a police officer, whose duty it is to prevent robbery, abets the commission of robbery. Here, though the robbery be not committed, A is liable to
a. One-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence, and also to fine.
b. One-fourth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence, and also to fine.
c. One-sixth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence, and also to fine.
d. None of the above
54. Which chapter of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with “OF OFFENCES RELATING TO DOCUMENTS AND TO PROPERTY MARKS”?
a. CHAPTER XVI
b. CHAPTER XV
c. CHAPTER X
d. CHAPTER XVIII
55. “Woman” under section 2(35) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 means a female human being of
a. Any age
b. Eighteen years
c. Sixteen years
d. Twenty one years
56. Which provisions of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with the 'Solitary confinement' and 'limits on solitary confinement'?
a. Section 12 and Section 13
b. Section 9 and Section 10
c. Section 11 and Section 12
d. Section 10 and Section 11
57. A, a revenue officer, tortures Z in order to compel him to pay certain arrears of revenue due from Z. A is guilty of an offence under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 118
b. Section 119
c. Section 120
d. Section 121
58. A is taking a stroll in a public park and finds a mobile phone lying on a bench. Initially, A intends to hand it over to the nearest police station. However, upon reaching the station, A has a change of heart and decides to keep the phone for personal use, without making any effort to find the owner. Which of the following offenses has A committed under the BNS?
a. Theft under Section 303, because the intention to dishonestly misappropriate was formed at the time of moving the property.
b. Theft under Section 303, because the subsequent dishonest intent relates back to the initial taking.
c. Dishonest misappropriation under Section 314, as the property was not taken from the owner's possession with dishonest intent from the outset.
d. Criminal breach of trust under Section 316, because the property was initially taken under a presumption of honest intention.
59. A snatches a gold chain from B's neck while B is walking on a public street. A makes no attempt to cause hurt but only uses sudden force to seize the property. Under the BNS, what offense has A committed?
a. Theft, because no hurt was caused.
b. Robbery, because the property was taken by force.
c. Snatching, a new specific offense under Section 304 of the BNS.
d. Theft in a public place
60. A trespasser, with the intention to commit theft, covertly enters a house by slipping through a partially open window that was not intended for entry, specifically timing his entry to avoid being seen by the residents. Which of the following is the most accurate classification of the offense committed by the trespasser under the BNS?
a. Simple house-trespass under Section 329(2).
b. Lurking house-trespass under Section 330(1), but not house-breaking.
c. House-breaking under Section 330(2)(b), but not lurking house-trespass.
d. Both lurking house-trespass and house-breaking under Section 330
61. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) is the offense of criminal defamation defined?
a. Section 106
b. Section 356
c. Section 75
d. Section 303
62. A is attacked by a person who, due to a severe mental disorder, is incapable of knowing the nature of his act. A uses reasonable force in self-defence to stop the attack. Is A protected under the BNS?
a. No, because the attacker committed no "offense" in the legal sense.
b. Yes, because the right of private defence is available even against acts of persons who are not criminally liable due to mental disorder.
c. Only if A can prove he did not know about the attacker's mental condition.
d. No, A should have sought public assistance.
63. Under the BNS, in which chapter are the provisions regarding the Right of Private Defence contained?
a. Chapter I
b. Chapter II
c. Chapter III
d. Chapter IV
64. Under the BNSS, a magistrate can authorize police custody for an accused person. Which statement accurately describes the police custody provisions?
a. Police custody of up to 15 days must be taken in a single, continuous block.
b. The total police custody period can be up to 60 or 90 days, depending on the offence, but the 15-day limit applies for police interrogation.
c. The 15-day period for police custody can be spread out across the first 40 or 60 days of the total detention period.
d. The total police custody period cannot exceed 15 days under any circumstances.
65. The BNSS mandates a forensic expert's visit to the crime scene in specific cases. For which category of offences is this mandatory?
a. All criminal offences, regardless of the punishment.
b. Offences punishable with imprisonment of less than 7 years.
c. Offences punishable with imprisonment of 7 years or more.
d. Only in cases where there is a request from the victim's family.
66. Which authority is responsible for ordering maintenance payments under Section 144?
a. The local police station
b. A Judicial Magistrate of the first class
c. The Central Government
d. The village Panchayat
67. Section 201 of BNSS deals with the territorial jurisdiction of courts for inquiries and trials of which type of offences?
a. Offences committed in a single location.
b. Offences involving dacoity, kidnapping, theft, and related crimes, allowing for the trial to occur where the act or consequences happened.
c. Offences committed by public servants.
d. Offences committed in a specific district.
68. Which chapter of BNSS, 2023 deals with “DISPOSAL OF PROPERTY”?
a. CHAPTER XXXVI
b. CHAPTER XXXV
c. CHAPTER XXXIV
d. CHAPTER XXXVII
69. What is the fundamental change introduced by Section 223 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, regarding a Magistrate's power to take cognizance on a complaint?
a. The Magistrate can now take cognizance without examining the complainant.
b. The accused must be given an opportunity to be heard before the Magistrate takes cognizance.
c. The Magistrate must refer every complaint to the police for investigation before proceeding.
d. The power to take cognizance has been shifted from Magistrates to the Sessions Court.
70. Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, specifically outlines the procedure when a bond is forfeited?
a. Section 496
b. Section 491
c. Section 492
d. Section 495
71. If a death sentence is commuted to life imprisonment, what is the minimum time a person must serve before they can be released, according to Section 475 of the BNSS?
a. Ten years.
b. Twelve years.
c. Fourteen years.
d. Twenty years.
72. The BNSS contains provisions relating to the release of under trial prisoners who have been detained for a certain period. Under the BNSS, when is an under trial who has been detained for one-half of the maximum sentence for an offence permitted to be released on a personal bond?
a. In all cases.
b. In any case except where the offence is punishable with death.
c. In any case except where the offence is punishable with both death and life imprisonment.
d. Never.
73. The BNSS has incorporated the provision for registering a "Zero FIR." What does a Zero FIR mean?
a. An FIR that is registered for minor or petty offences.
b. An FIR that can be registered by the public online.
c. An FIR that can be registered at any police station, irrespective of where the crime occurred.
d. An FIR that does not require a physical signature.
74. When an accused person appears before a Magistrate in a case exclusively triable by a Court of Session, what is the Magistrate's mandatory duty under Section 232 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023?
a. To conduct the trial personally to avoid delay.
b. To commit the case to the Court of Session.
c. To dismiss the case for lack of jurisdiction.
d. To refer the case to the High Court for directions.
75. Under Section 360 of the BNSS, who can withdraw from the prosecution of a case?
a. A police officer.
b. The presiding Judge or Magistrate.
c. The Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor.
d. The victim, with the court's permission.
76. In what capacity does the High Court or Sessions Judge act when exercising their powers under Section 438?
a. As a trial court.
b. As an investigating agency.
c. As a revisional court.
d. As an appellate court for all cases.
77. Which provision of BNSS, 2023 deals with “Power to summon persons”?
a. section 196
b. section 197
c. section 198
d. section 195
78. Which of the following is an exception to the requirement for the Magistrate to examine the complainant and witnesses under oath?
a. When the complaint is against a private citizen.
b. When the complaint is in writing and made by a public servant or a court acting in their official capacity.
c. When the accused and complainant both agree to waive the examination.
d. When the case is considered a "petty offense."
79. What is the deadline for a Magistrate to furnish the required documents to the accused and the victim under Section 230 of the BNSS?
a. Within 7 days of the accused's appearance.
b. Within 14 days of the accused's appearance or production.
c. As soon as possible, with no specific time limit.
d. Within 30 days of the police report being submitted.
80. What does Section 508 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 address?
a. The power of the High Court to transfer cases.
b. The validity of proceedings that take place in a wrong court.
c. The power of the Supreme Court to hear appeals.
d. The granting of bail by a Magistrate.
81. Under the BSA, what is the best evidence rule related to?
a. Producing any evidence as long as it's relevant
b. Producing the original document unless circumstances prevent it
c. Only oral evidence is considered the best evidence
d. Secondary evidence is always preferred over primary evidence
82. What is the rule regarding the competency of an accomplice as a witness under the BSA?
a. An accomplice is not a competent witness against the accused.
b. An accomplice is a competent witness against the accused person.
c. An accomplice can only testify with the permission of the court.
d. An accomplice can only testify in civil cases.
83. What does the term "conclusive proof" mean under the BSA?
a. A fact is presumed true but can be disproved.
b. A fact is proved, and no evidence can be given to disprove it.
c. A fact is not proved or disproved.
d. A fact may be considered as proved.
84. Under Section 32 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, for a statement of law in a book to be relevant, it must purport to be:
a. Printed by a private publisher
b. Published under the authority of the government
c. A personal opinion of an expert
d. All of the above
85. A final judgment, order, or decree of a competent court is relevant under Section 35 if it is passed in the exercise of which of the following jurisdictions?
a. Probate
b. Matrimonial
c. Insolvency
d. All of the above
86. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, is intended to replace which previous law?
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
87. The term "Court" as defined in Section 2(1)(a) of the BSA includes:
a. Judges and Magistrates only
b. All Judges and Magistrates, and arbitrators
c. All Judges and Magistrates and any person authorized to take evidence, except arbitrators
d. Arbitrators only
88. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with “Grounds of opinion, when relevant”?
a. Section 44
b. Section 45
c. Section 46
d. Section 43
89. Section 41 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, covers opinions regarding both handwriting and electronic signatures. This section is concerned with opinions related to:
a. Handwriting only.
b. Handwriting and oral evidence.
c. Handwriting and electronic signatures.
d. Electronic records only.
90. Section 43 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 deals with the relevancy of opinions regarding:
a. Foreign law.
b. Handwriting.
c. Usages, tenets, and certain foundations.
d. The cause of death.
91. Which part of the BSA, 2023, governs the right of the adverse party when a witness uses a document to refresh memory?
a. Section 163
b. Section 166
c. Section 165
d. Section 164
92. How is "Admission" defined under Section 15 of the BSA, 2023?
a. Only an oral statement
b. Only a written statement
c. A statement (oral, documentary, or in electronic form) that suggests an inference to any fact in issue or relevant fact
d. A formal agreement between parties in court
93. A refers B to C for information regarding a business transaction. C's statement is an admission against B under which section of the BSA?
a. Section 16
b. Section 17
c. Section 18
d. Section 20
94. Section 34 of the BSA, 2023, states that a previous judgment is relevant to:
a. Determine the character of the parties.
b. Bar a second suit or trial.
c. Prove the facts admitted in the previous suit.
d. Provide opinion on a point of law.
95. Under Section 38 of the BSA, 2023, if a judgment, order, or decree is proved to have been obtained by "fraud or collusion", or if the Court was "incompetent" to pass it, what can be done?
a. The judgment remains binding until overturned by a higher court.
b. The court must accept the judgment as valid evidence.
c. The fraud, collusion, or incompetency may be proved to render the judgment irrelevant.
d. Only a separate suit can challenge the judgment's validity.
96. In a defamation case, A is accused of defaming B. The fact that A had previously published imputations about B, showing ill-will, is relevant to prove:
a. A's good faith in the publication
b. A's reputation
c. B's reputation
d. A's intention to harm B's reputation
97. What is the main principle outlined in Section 4 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. All facts are relevant in a legal proceeding.
b. Facts that are not directly in issue but are connected to the main transaction are relevant.
c. Only facts that occurred at the same time and place are relevant.
d. Facts related to motive or preparation are the only relevant facts
98. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India permits State to make special provision for children?
a. Article 21
b. Article 19(2)
c. Article 18
d. Article 15(3)
99. Which one of the following statements is correct? When Emergency is in operation, the President of India may declare that
a. All Fundamental Rights are suspended
b. All Fundamental Rights except Articles 20 and 21 are suspended
c. All Fundamental Rights except Articles 19 and 20 are suspended
d. All Fundamental Rights except Articles 21 and 22 are suspended
100. Which one of the following is the leading case on the issue of transfer of Judges?
a. SP Gupta v. Union of India
b. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
c. State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
d. Keshavan Madhava Menon v, Union of India
101. In which one of the following cases it is not mandatory for the President or any other authority to consult the Union Public Service Commission?
a. In matters covered by Article 335 of the Constitution
b. Principles to be followed in making appointments
c. Award of pension in respect of injuries sustained by a civil servant while in service
d. Memorials and petitions pertaining to disciplinary matters
102. The doctrine against self-incrimination under Article 20(3) runs to state that "no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself." With respect to the above, response the following:
a. Protection is available to the accused
b. Protection is against the statement made under compulsion
c. The statements which may not result in self-incriminating evidence
d. Protection is not available during police custody
103. "Assertion (A): The Directive Principles are relevant for determining the reasonableness of restrictions under Article 19.
Reason (R): The Directive Principles have been declared superior to fundamental rights.
Codes:"
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
104. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that 'Right to Sleep' is a fundamental right?
a. Naaz Foundation Case
b. In Re Ramlila Maidan Case
c. Anna Hazare Case
d. None of these
105. In which one of the following cases the new concept of doctrine of equality, i.e., 'protection against arbitrariness', was propagated by Justice Bhagwati?
a. Air India v. N. Mirza
b. Pradeep Jain v. Union of India
c. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
d. O.K. Bakshi v. Union of India
106. The Executive power of the Union Government is vested in the President of India. The President shall exercise these powers:
a. Himself
b. Directly or through officers subordinate to him, if he so desires
c. Either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
d. Only on the advice of Prime Minister.
107. "Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a High Court to be Attorney- General for India.
2. In the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in India.
3. The Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?"
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
108. In the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our "Preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and inspirations”. Who was the Judge?
a. Justice Mathew
b. Justice Krishna Iyer
c. Justice Subba Rao
d. Justice H.R. Khanna
109. There is no fundamental right to—
a. Approach the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India
b. Approach the Supreme, Court to claim right to practise carry on business
c. Education
d. Freedom of press
110. Assertion (A): It is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to the poor.
Reason (R): No one shall be denied justice by reason of his poverty.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.
111. Election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise, shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than:
a. One month from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
b. Two months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
c. Three months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
d. Six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
112. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. No citizen of India shall accept a title from any foreign State and no title may be conferred by the State
b. India may confer a title on a noncitizen
c. A citizen may accept the title of Sir or Lord conferred by the Queen
d. A foreigner in the service of India may accept a title from a foreign State
113. The Supreme Court, while exercising power under Article 136 of the Constitution of India
a. Frequently interferes in the concurrent findings of the High Court
b. Interferes only when certificate of fitness is issued by the concerned High Court
c. Has no power to interfere in the concurrent finding of the High Court
d. Interferes when it is found that gross injustice has occurred to the petitioner
114. In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 27 of Indian Evidence Act was challenged for violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?
a. State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu
b. Mirza Akbar v. King Emperor
c. State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhaya
d. Queen Emperor v. Abdullah
115. As per the IT (Amendment) Act, 2008, the burden of proof for an intermediary to claim exemption from liability under Section 79 was modified. The onus now primarily lies on the affected person to prove that the intermediary:
a. Failed to act with due diligence after being notified by a private party
b. Conspired, abetted, or aided the commission of the unlawful act
c. Had constructive, but not actual, knowledge of the illegal content
d. Hosted the unlawful content for more than 48 hours
116. Section 75 of the IT Act, 2000 establishes the Act's extraterritorial jurisdiction. It states that the Act applies to offenses or contraventions committed outside India by any person if the act or conduct involves a:
a. Computer network located in India
b. Protected system located in India
c. Computer resource located in India
d. Server located in India
117. Under the IT Act, 2000, compounding of contraventions (settling offenses out of court with a penalty) is permissible under which section?
a. Section 77A
b. Section 66G
c. Section 63
d. Section 46
118. Which Section of the IT Act, 2000 grants the Central Government the power to declare any computer resource "protected system"?
a. Section 69
b. Section 69A
c. Section 70
d. Section 71
119. Which specific section of the IT Act makes the publication or transmission of material depicting children in a sexually explicit act (child pornography) in electronic form a distinct and severely punishable offense?
a. Section 67
b. Section 67A
c. Section 67B
d. Section 67C
120. Which definition under Section 2 implicitly encompasses almost all entities that facilitate internet communication, including telecom providers and network service providers?
a. "Originator" [Section 2(1)(z)]
b. "Addressee" [Section 2(1)(b)]
c. "Intermediary" [Section 2(1)(w)]
d. "Service provider" [Section 2(1)(zc)]
