1. What writ can be issued for an illegal detention?
(A) Writ of Prohibition
(B) Writ of Mandamus
(C) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(D) Writ of Quo Warranto
2. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been borrowed from the Constitution of—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Canada
(C) Ireland
(D) Russia
3. Give the correct response— Article 15(1) prohibits that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on ground only of—
(A) Religion, race, sex and place of birth
(B) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and descent
(C) Religion, race, caste, creed, sex or place of birth
(D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
4. Under which of the following Articles laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental rights are declared void?
(A) Article 12 (B) Article 13
(C) Article 11 (D) Article 21
5. Which one of the following does not fall within the meaning of ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Barkathllah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal
(B) Government of India and the Parliament
(C) British Airways Corporation
(D) Bhopal Municipal Corporation
6. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the Constitution are available Only to—
(A) Citizens of India
(B) Citizens of India and Foreigners
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) Foreigners living in India
7. In which of the following Articles of the Constitution provision regarding uniform civil code has been given?
(A) 43rd (B) 44th
(C) 46th (D) 47th
8. For the post of President of India the minimum age of the person should be—
(A) 21 years (B) 25 years'
(C) 30 years (D) 35 years
9. Who does not have the right to vote in the election of President of India?
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
(C) President’s nominee in Rajya Sabha
(D) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
10. By the Presidents Employment and Pension (Amendment) Act, 1998, the salary of the President has been enhanced to—
(A) From Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 20,000 per month
(B) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 25,000 per month
(C) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 50,000 per month
(D) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 45,000 per month
11. When the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is by reason of absence or otherwise unable to perform the duties of his office, the duties of his office shall be performed by—
(A) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the Chief justice of India
(B) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the President of India
(C) Any senior most judge of the Supreme Court after the Chief Justice
(D) Any one of the above
12. Legal sovereignty in India resides in the Constitution itself and not in ‘we the people of India’. This ideology was expressed in—
(A) Lucknow Development Authority V/s AK. Gupta case
(B) Sankari Prasad case
(C) Golak Nath case
(D) Keswanand Bharti’s case
13. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed that labour taken from prisoners without paying proper remunerations comes within forced labour?
(A) Deena V/s Union of India
(B) Menka Gandhi V/s Union of India
(C) Sanjit Roy V/s State of Rajasthan
(D) All of the above
14. Under which of the following Articles the President of India has a right to suspend the implementation of fundamental rights during proclamation of emergency?
(A) Article 359 (B) Article 360
(C) Article 354 (D) Article 353
15. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution the Supreme Court has pdV/ers to review its decisions?
(A) Article 135 (B) Article 136
(C) Article 137 (D) Article 143
16. Which one of the following is not essential for an offence?
(A) Intention
(B) Motive
(C) Prohibited act
(D) Punishment for act
17. In which of the following mensrea has been considered to be an essential element of an offence?
(A) Srinivasmal Barolia V/s Emperor
(B) R. V/s Tolson ?
(C) Nathulal V/s State of Madhya Pradesh
(D) In all of the above
18. The grounds for punishing Prince in R. V/s Prince was—
(A) Prohibited act done by Prince
(B) Illegal act done by Prince
(C) Knowingly committing of civil wrong by Prince
(D) Illegal and prohibited act done by Prince
19. Who amongst the following has observed that under the Indian Penal Code such a maxim ‘Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea’ is wholly out of place?
(A) J.D. Mayne, Criminal Law of India
(B) H.S. Gour, Penal Law of India
(C) Ratan La! Dheeraj La!, Law of Crimes
(D) All of the above
20. Which one of the following preparation is not an offence?
(A) Preparation for robbery of a Bank
(B) Preparation of dacoity in a Bank
(C) To make die for counterfeiting coins
(D) To make die for counterfeiting Indian coins
21. For abduction the abducted person should be—
(A) Below 16 years of age
(B) Below 18 years of age
(C) Insane person
(D) Of any age
22. A does sexual intercourse with B (a widow) below 16 years of age with her consent—
(A) A has not committed rape
(B) A has committed adultery
(C) A has committed rape with B
(D) Nothing above is correct
23. A male teacher during examination, while conducting search, put his hands in the pocket of the pant of a girl candidate thinking her to be a boy. Here the teacher, under the Penal Code, has committed the offence under Section— ,
(A) 354 (B) 323
(C) 509 (D) No offence
24. The case of Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab is concerned with—
(A) Capital punishment in India
(B) Custody of under trial prisoners
(C) Prosecution for attempted suicide
(D) None of the above
25. In which of the following cases the Privy Council made a distinction between ‘common intention’ and‘ similar intention’?
(A) Barendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor
(B) Mahboob Shah V/s King Emperor
(C) Srinivasmal Barolia V/s Emperor
(D) Bannu Mai V/s Emperor
26. In connection with the right of a private defence of body give the correct response—
(A) This right is not available against an unsound person
(B) This right is not available against a per son below 7 years of age
(C) This right is available against any person
(D) This right is not available against parents
27. A and B both are of 16 years of age. A entices B for marriage and takes her to another city. What offence has been committed by A?
(A) A has committed kidnapping
(B) A has committed no offence as B has gone with her own consent
(C) A has committed abduction
(D) A is himself minor. Hence A has committed no offence
28. A abets B to commit theft from the pocket of C.B finding an opportunity picks C’s pocket while C was travelling by a bus. Give the correct answer—
(A) A is responsible for abetment of theft
(B) A is not responsible for abetment of picking of pocket
(C) A is not responsible for abetment of committing theft because theft has not been committed from the house
(D) All the above are correct
29. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) In every robbery there are at least two persons
(B) In every robbery there is a fear of violence
(C) In every robbery there is either theft or extortion .
(D) In every Dacoity there is robbery
30. Which one of the following cases does not relate to intoxication?
(A) D.P.P. V/s Beard
(B) Basudeo V/s State of Pepsu
(C) R. V/s Mcnaughten
(D) R. V/s Tandy
31. A snake-charmer while showing his play claims to cure the snake bite. The deceased got himself a snake bite believing on assurance of the snake-charmer. The snake- charmer could not cure the deceased. The snake-charmer is liable for—
(A) Murder
(B) Cheating
(C) May be liable for culpable homicide
(D) Liable for nothing
32. Which one of the following is not correct?
(A) For theft property must be movable
(B) For theft property must be removed out of the possession of the owner of property
(C) For theft property should have been removed for taking it away
(D) For theft property should be removed dishonestly
33. A meets B on high roads, shows a pistol and demands B’s purse. B in consequence, surrenders his purse. Here A has committed—
(A) Theft (B) Extortion
(C) Robbery (D) Dacoity
34. Six persons are prosecuted for dacoity. The court released two of them for benefit of doubt of their identity. The rest four—
(A) Can be convicted for dacoity
(B) Cannot be convicted for dacoity
(C) Can be convicted for robbery because their number falls short of five
(D) None of the above is correct
35. Which one of the following is not essential for the offence of affray?
(A) Number of persons is two or more than two
(B) Persons are members of unlawful assembly
(C) Fighting is at public place
(D) Public peace is disturbed
36. Mark the corrept answer—
The conditional order passed by a Magistrate under Section 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code cannot be challenged in civil court. This statement is—
(A) Wrong (B) Correct
(C) Partly wrong (D) Partly correct
37. A was travelling from Bhopal to Jabalpur by Rajkot-Jabalpur Express Train. At Itarsi A caused grievous hurt to B who was the resident of Jabalpur. Where will the case be tried?
(A) At Bhopal from where A started his s journey
(B) At Jabalpur of where B was the resident
(C) At Itarsi where A caused grievous hurt to B
(D) At the place where MY. High Court decides .
38. Which of the following Court can try a murder case?
(A) Magistrate 1st Class
(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) Additional Sessions Judge
(D) Any of these Courts
39. Warrant case relates to an offence punishable with—
(A) More than one year imprisonment
(B) More than three-years imprisonment
(C) Death penalty, life imprisonment or ; imprisonment more than two years
(D) More than five years imprisonment
40. Under Section 145 of the Cr. P.C. in connection with a dispute on immovable property, the executive magistrate prior to passing his orders as regards to possession over such property which one of the following periods he takes into consideration?
(A) One month (B) Two months
(C) Four months (D) Six months
41. Under Section 106 of the Criminal Procedure code which of the following courts has power to release the offender on security for keeping the peace and for good behaviour?
(A) Sessions Court
(B) Magistrate 1st Class
(C) Appellate or Revisional Court
(D) All of the above
42. Now under Section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code what payments per month can be ordered for maintenance?
(A) 50% on the basis of salary of the person
(B) Upto Rs. 500
(C) Upto Rs. 3,000
(D) As the Magistrate deems necessary in the circumstances
43. Which of the following cannot claim maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code?
(A) Wife who cannot maintain herself
(B) Mother or father who cannot maintain herself or himself
(C) Major married daughter who cannot maintain herself
(D) Minor illegitimate daughter who cannot maintain herself
44. For invoking Section 133 of Cr.P.C. Where should not be the inconvenience or invasion On—
(A) Public rights
(B) Public place
(C) Private place or private persons
(D) All of the above
45. Under Section 29 of the Criminal Procedure Code the second class Magistrate can pass sentence upto—
(A) 1 year (B) 2 years
(C) 3 years (D) All of these
46. Which one of the following offences cannot be summarily tried?
(A) Grievous hurt
(B) Theft when the value of stolen property is below Rs. 200
(C) Offences relating to Sections 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Offence of abetment of the offences enumerated under Section 260(vii) of the Criminal Procedure Code
47. Under Chapter XXl of Criminal Procedure Code while adopting summary trial maximum punishment cannot be passed more than—
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Four months
(D) One month
48. Under Section 198 of the Criminal Procedure Code the court can take cognizance of any offence laid down under Section 497 and 498 of the Indian Penal Code on the complaint of -
(A) Husband of the woman
(B) Father of the woman
(C) Mother of the woman
(D) Any of these
49. Which one of the following proceedings is known as judicial proceeding?
(A) Investigation
(B) Enquiry and Investigation
(C) Enquiry and Trial
(D) Trial and Investigation
50. Under Criminal Procedure Code to what maximum period an accused can be ordered to be kept in police custody by the Magistrate?
(A) Three days (B) Seven days
(C) Ten days (D) Fifteen days
51. Who is authorised for removal of public ^nuisance?
(A) Judicial Magistrate 1st Class
(B) Judicial Magistrate find Class
(C) Executive Magistrate
(D) Sessions Judge
52. Which of the following Magistrates can order the habitual offenders of robbery or house breaking to execute a bond with or without sureties ?
(A) Judicial Magistrate Ilnd Class
(B) Judicial Magistrate 1st Class
(C) Executive Magistrate
(D) Any of these
53. Under which of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code police can arrest an accused without warrant?
(A) Section 37 (B) Section 40
(C) Section 42 (D) Section 41
54. How are tine summons served
(A) By a police officer
(B) By an officer of the court
(C) By any authorised public servant
(D) By any of the above
55. To set aside forfeiture under Section 95 of the Criminal Procedure Code, application may be given to the—
(A) Sessions Court (B) High Court
(C) Supreme Court (D) Any of these
56. Which one of the following is a fact?
(A) Han said (B) Mohan saw
(C) Ram told a He (D) All of these
57. To what facts of the following the rules of relevancy have been discussed under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Motive
(B) Preparation
(C) Previous or subsequent conduct
(D) All of the above
58. The facts showing the existence of any state of mind under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act relate to—
(A) Intention
(B) Knowledge
(C) Good faith
(D) All of these
59. Who can take identification parade?
(A) Police officer (B) Magistrate
(C) Any citizen (D) Any of these
60. The question is, whether A committed murder of a person on a particular day at Kolkata, the fact that on that day A was at Lahore—
(A) Is relevant
(B) Is irrelevant
(C) Is not relevant
(D) None of these
61. The question is, whether a particular letter reached A. The fact that it was posted in due course and was not returned through the dead letter office—
(A) Are not relevant
(B) Are irrelevant
(C) Are relevant
(D) None of these
62. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, the confession before the Magistrate is relevant?
(A) Section 24 (B) Section 25
(C) Section 26 (D) Section 27
63. Confession before the police—
(A) Will be proved
(B) Will not be proved
(C) Will be considered confession
(D) Will not be considered confession
64. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, the expert opinion is relevant?
(A) Section 44
(B) Section 45
(C) Section 46
(D) Section 41
65. In criminal proceedings the fact that the accused person has a bad character is—
(A) Irrelevant
(B) Relevant
(C) Above (A) is right unless evidence has been given that he has a good.character
(D) All the above are incorrect
66. Public document under Indian Evidence Act can be proved by—
(A) Certified copy
(B) Oral evidence
(C) The writer of certified copy
(D) Any of the above
67. When is it not necessary to call the certifying writer of the document to prove the document?
(A) When the document is not a will
(B) When the document is 30 years old
(C) (A) and (B) are correct
(D) (A) and (B) are wrong
68. On whom does the burden of proof lie?
(A) On prosecution
(B) On accused
(C) On both
(D) On the discretion of the court
69. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the evidence of a dumb witness is taken into consideration?
(A) Section 116 (B) Section 117
(C) Section 118 (D) Section 119
70. When can leading questions be asked?
(A) In cross-examination
(B) In examination in chief with the permission of the court
(C) In re-examination with the permission of the court
(D) In all the above situations
71. Give the correct answer—“All the admissions are confessions but all the confessions are not admissions.”
(A) The statement is correct
(B) The statement is incorrect
(C) The statement is partly correct and partly incorrect
(D) All thfe above statements are incorrect
72. Mark the correct statement—
(A) The doctrine of estoppel is applied only in civil matters
(B) The doctrine of estoppel is applied only in criminal matters
(C) The doctrine of estoppel is applied in civil and criminal matters .
(D) All the above statements are wrong
73. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act the previous judgments are relevant to bar a second suit or trial?
(A) Section 39 (B) Section 40
(C) Section 11 (D) Section 42
74. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act the contents of electronic records maybe proved?
(A) Section 65-A (B) Section 65-B
(C) Section 66 (D) Section 67
75. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act opinion as to digital signature is relevant?
(A) Section 34
(B) Section 39
(C) Section 47-A
(D) Section 85-A
76. Which one of the following statements in relation to the scope of the Arms Act, 1959 is correct?
(A) It extends to the whole of India
(B) It extends to the whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
(C) It extends to all union territories
(D) It extends to the state of M.P. only
77. Give the correct answer—Where the licensing authority prior to .grant of licence to any person under the Arms Act, calls for a report about the person from the concerned police station but the police station did not send the police report in the prescribed time. Then—:
(A) The order of licence will be cancelled
(B) Report will be again asked to be sent
(C) After the prescribed time licence maybe given' without report of the police
(D) Licence without report will not be valid '
78. Under which Section of the Arms Act, the provisions of appeal against the licensing authority have been given?
(A) Section 16 (B) Section 18
(C) Section 20 (D) Section 21
79. Mark the wrong statement—.
(A) There is no provision of appeal against the order of the licensing authority -
(B) Appeal may be filed against the orders. of the licensing authority
(C) Appeal against the orders of the' licensing authority can be filed within, the time limit prescribed under Limitation Act , '
(D) Duration of appeal after lapse of prescribed time can be extended for legal reasons
80. Give the correct answer— Can any person possess any weapon after the lapse of licence period?
(A) He can have possession for sixty days
(B) He can have possession for ninety days
(C) If he keeps weapon it is an offence
(D) All the above statements are wrong
81. A, a person of scheduled caste attacks on B, a woman of scheduled tribe with the intention o( her molestation. Under which one of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, A has committed an dffence?
(A) Section 3 (B) Section 4
(C) Section 5 (D) None of these
82. Who does constitute the special court under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Pre vention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
(A) Through notification by Central Government
(B) By Central Government with consultation of Chief Justice of India
(C) By State Government with the consultation of the Chief Justice of the state High Court
(D) By giving special status to Sessions Court by the Governor
83. For the execution of the provisions of the S.C. and S.T. (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 through the notification of the Official Gazette u/s 23 of the Act rules can be made by—
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Supreme Court
(D) All of these
84. Power to add or delete any substance in the list of psychotropic substances lies with the—
(A) State Government
(B) Central Government
(C) Central and State Government both
(D) High Court
85. What is the nature of offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985?
(A) Cognizable
(B) Non-cognizable
(C) Partly cognizable, partly non-cognizable
(D) As are in Cr. P.C.
86. Offence committed under which of the following Sections of the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 cannot be tried summarily?
(A) Section 26 (B) Section 27
(C) Section 32 (D) Section 18
87. When qualifications are required for a judge of a special court under the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985?
(A) At least 7 years experience of advocacy
(B) At least 5 years experience of being judicial magistrate
(C) Sessions judge
(D) None of the above
88. Under which Section of the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 any import in India or export from India is punishable?
(A) Section 21 (B) Section 22
(C) Section 23 (D) Section 18
89. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, the Probation of offenders Act, 1958 does not apply to persons above the age of—
(A) 18 years (B) 16 years
(C) 15 years (D) 14 years
90. In the context of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, civil right means any right accruing to a person by reason of the abolition of untouchability under the following Article of the Constitution—
(A) Article 15 (B) Section 16
(C) Article 17 (D) Section 18
91. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 the provision for punishment for enforcing religious disabilities is given in which of the following Sections?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 4
(C) Sections
(D) Section 2
92. Which of the following authorities can be an excise officer within the M.P. Excise Act, 1915?
(A) Collector
(B) Any officer appointed u/s 7 of this Act
(C) Revenue officer ,
(D) Any one of the above (A) or (B)
93. Which of the following Sections of the M.P. Excise Act, 1915 deals with the establishment flying squades?
(A) Section 7 (B) Section 7-A
(C) Section 9 (D) Section 9-A
94. Which authority has right to prohibit the import, export or transportation of narcotic drugs under Section 8 of M.P. Excise Act, 1915?
(A) State Government
(B) Commissioner Excise
(C) Excise Officer
(D) Revenue Officer
95. If any constituent of the article has been wholly or in part abstracted so as to affect injuriously the nature, substance or quality thereof, that substance under the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 is known as—
(A) Imitated article
(B) Adulterated article
(C) Polluted article
(D) Any of these
96. Under the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 which of the following u/s 21 of the Indian Penal Code will be the public servant?
(A) Food Inspector
(B) Public Analyst
(C) Director, Central Laboratory
(D) Any of the above
97. Under which one of the following Sections of the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 convicted person’s article of food in respect of which contravention is committed, is forfeited to the Government?
(A) Section 15 (B) Section 16
(C) Section 17 (D) Section 18
98. Under Section 22 of the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 the defence of Good faith is available in—
(A) Civil cases only
(B) Criminal cases only
(C) In civil, criminal or other legal proceedings
(D) In none of the above
99. The place to which the public are admitted and in which an entertainment is provided or held is called—
(A) Hotel
(B) Motel
(C) Entertainment house
(D) Place of public entertainment
100. Which of the following authority is empowered to impose collective find on the inhabitants of an area concerned under Section 10-A of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 ?
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) High Court
(D) Judicial Masgistrate 1st Class
