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1. Which of the following act will not fall in general exceptions provided under Chapter III of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Act likely to cause harm but done without criminal intent and prevent other harm

b. Accident in doing a lawful act

c. Act of the child aged 14 years

d. Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself justified by law

 

2. In India right to education is a: —

a. constitutional right

b. statutory right

c. fundamental right

d. common law right

 

3. A communication made to the spouse during marriage, under Section 128 of the BSA:

a. Remains privileged communication after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death

b. Does not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death

c. Does not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce but remains privileged even after death

d. Remains privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce but not so on after death

 

4. Appeal for enhancement of sentence will lie before the court, when sentence has been awarded by Magistrate of 1st Class:

a. Before Court of Sessions

b. Before Supreme Court

c. Before High Court

d. Before Special Court

 

5. Connection with the right of a private defence of body give the correct response:

a. This right is not available against an unsound person

b. This right is not available against a person below 7 years of age

c. This right is available against any person

d. This right is not available against parents

 

6. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Right of private defence of the body begins

a. When a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises

b. When there is an attack on the body

c. When public authorities have refused protection

d. When, mental peace is disturbed

 

7. Permission to investigate into a non- cognizable offence can be granted by a:

a. Magistrate in any part of India

b. Magistrate in any part of State

c. Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case

d. Session Judge

 

8. The conduct to be relevant under Section 6 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, it:

a. must be previous

b. must be subsequent

c. may be either previous or subsequent

d. none of the above

 

9. Consider the following statements:

1. Section 3(5) of BNS requires two persons whereas Section 190 of BNS require five persons.

2. Section 3(5) of BNS requires common intention, whereas Section 190 of BNS requires common object

3. Section 3(5) of BNS and Section 190 of BNS both require presence of a prior consent

4. Section 3(5) of BNS and section 190 of BNS. Both create specific offence

Which of the above statements are correct?

a. 1 and 3

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 2

d. 2 and 4

 

10. Which Act did the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) replace?

a. Indian Penal Code, 1860

b. Indian Evidence Act, 1872

c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

d. Indian Contract Act, 1872

 

11. Defence of necessity is not available to excuse killing of someone to protect the life of many. This principle which is followed in India was laid down earlier by the Queens Bench Division in the following case.

a. R. v. Moore

b. R. v. Dudely and Stepens

c. R. v. Davis

d. R. v. Mc'pherson

 

12. The Preamble of Constitution of India includes all the following except: —

a. Equality of status

b. Adult Franchise

c. Fraternity

d. Justice

 

13. ‘Legal Representative’ as defined in Section 2(11) of C.P.C. does not include—

a. Natural heir

b. Legatee who obtains only a part of the estate of the deceased

c. Donee of the suit property

d. Person who is neither a legal heir nor an intermeddler with the estate of the deceased

 

14. Which of the following is not a writ mentioned in the Constitution?

a. Quo Warranto

b. Certiorari

c. Prohibition

d. Interrogatory

 

15. In which of the following the right of private defence of body does not extend to causing of death?

a. An assault with the intention of committing rape

b. An assault with the intention of kidnapping

c. An assault with the intention of abducting

d. An assault with the intention of committing wrongful restraint

 

16. Only such facts are made relevant by the Bhartiya sakshya adhiniyam as are encompassed by:

a. Section 3 to Section 50 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

b. Section 3 to Section 26 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

c. All the Sections of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

d. Only such facts which can be proved as per Section 54 and Section 55 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

 

17. Which of the following is a State for the purposes of Article 12?

a. National Council of Educational Research and Training

b. Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies

c. Indian Oil Corporation

d. High Court of Delhi

 

18. A reputation of a person is: —

a. a fact

b. a subject

c. an opinion

d. an evidence

 

19. In which case the Supreme Court of India held that polygraph test conducted under compulsion is violative of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?

a. Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010)

b. Aruna R Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011)

c. Rattan Lai v. State of Punjab (1965)

d. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (1954)

 

20. Against which of the following offences the right to private defence of property extend to voluntary causing of death?

a. Theft

b. Mischief by fire

c. Robbery

d. All these

 

21. “The Indian Constitution provides a unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than federal State with subsidiary unitary features.”

a. Sir Ivor Jennings

b. A.V. Dicey

c. Prof K.C. Wheare

d. S.A. Desmith

 

22. The right of private defence is available?

a. Only to adults

b. Only to those who are capable of to lawfully commit crime

c. Only to the public servants

d. To all, irrespective of age and capacity

 

23. Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code, a High Court can transfer any case?

a. Section 20

b. Section 12

c. Section 24

d. Section 15

 

24. Time for instituting a suit can be enlarged by invoking which of the. following provisions?

a. Section 151 C.P.C.

b. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963

c. Section 148 C.P.C.

d. None of the above.

 

25. Which one of the following statements is correct?

The right of private defence under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is

a. An equitable remedy

b. A legal remedy

c. A judicial remedy

d. An extra judicial remedy

 

26. The ‘equal protection of Laws’ in Article 14 has been taken from: —

a. British Constitution

b. American Constitution

c. Australian Constitution

d. None of the above

 

27. Under which of the following Articles laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental rights are declared void?

a. Article 12

b. Article 13

c. Article 11

d. Article 21

 

28. Which one of the following Sections of the BSA provides for admissibility of secondary evidence?

a. Section 55

b. Section 56

c. Section 58

d. Section 60

 

29. Consider the following statements:

1. The police officer is not bound to give information about the arrest of the accused to any of his relations or friends.

2. A registered medical practitioner cannot use force to examine a person accused of rape sent by the police for such examination.

Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

30. Which of the following offences is cognizable, non-bailable and non- compoundable:

a. voluntarily causing grievous hurt, punishable under Section 117(2) BNS

b. attempt to murder punishable under Section 109 BNS

c. voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession, or to compel restoration of property, punishable under Section 120(1) BNS

d. voluntarily causing grievous hurt on provocation punishable under Section 122 BNS

 

31. PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done at the time when the accused is unsound and he is not aware of consequences of his act or that his act is wrong or contrary to law.

FACT: Surendra received divine orders in his sleep at night to sacrifice his one- year-old child and then he will go to heaven after dying. He carries out the order and kills his son. He is

a. Guilty of murder

b. Not guilty of any offence since it was tine order of God

c. Can plead unsoundness of mind as a defense and he should not be charged for murder.

d. Cannot be held liable for murdering his own child.

 

32. After which one of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes, introduced by an Amendment of the Constitution of India?

a. D.P. Joshi v. State of Madhya Bharat

b. MR Balaji v. State of Mysore

c. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

d. T. Devadasan v. Union of India

 

33. Police officer can be appointed as Asst Public Prosecutor, provided:

a. he is below the rank of Inspector

b. he has taken part in investigation

c. he is in the rank of Superintendent of Police

d. he is not below the rank of Inspector and has not been part of investigation

 

34. Which one of the following statements is correct?

On submission of death sentence for confirmation to the High Court, the confirmation of death sentence or any new sentence, or order shall be made passed and signed by at least

a. one judge

b. two judges

c. three judges

d. Full bench

 

35. A, a priest, knowingly officiates a bigamous marriage. A is guilty of:

a. Conspiracy

b. Abetment by instigation

c. Attempt to bigamy

d. Abetment by intentional aiding

 

36. Section 35 of BNS expressly states that the right of private defence is subject to the restrictions contained in

a. Section 37 of BNS

b. Section 38 of BNS

c. Section 36 of BNS

d. Section 40 of BNS

 

37. Under Section 2(5) of CPC, two conditions must be satisfied to bring a court within the definition of a foreign court:

a. Court must be situated outside India

b. Court must not have been established by Central Government

c. Court must not continued by the Central Government

d. All of the above

 

38. Point out the wrong statement:

a. Where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear, when the suit is called for hearing, the court shall dismiss the suit and the plaintiff shall be barred from filing a fresh suit on the same cause of action.

b. No appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte.

c. The plaintiff may apply to the court which passed an ex parte decree against him, for an order to set it aside.

d. No court shall set aside a decree passed ex parte merely on the ground that there has been an irregularity in the service of summon upon the defendant.

 

39. In which one of the following cases was the constitutional validity of Section 23 proviso of the BSA upheld?

a. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Deoman Upadhyaya

b. Bodh Raj v. State of Jammu and Kashmir.

c. Md. Inayathullah v. State of Maharashtra.

d. Shambulal Dayal v. Subhash Chandra.

 

40. Under which section of BNSS a Police Officer can release an accused on bail in non-bailable case?

a. Section 336

b. Section 367

c. Section 478

d. Section 480

 

41. In a cognizable case, the police will have all the powers to

a. Investigate except the power to arrest without warrant

b. Investigate including the power to arrest without warrant

c. c. Investigate and arrest without warrant only after seeking permission from the Magistrate

d. Investigate and arrest without warrant only after informing the Magistrate having jurisdiction to inquire into or try the offence

 

42. In relation to the expressions defined in Section 2 of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, which of the following statement is not correct:

a. Fact includes not only physical facts but also psychological facts

b. Courts includes arbitrators

c. An inscription on a stone is a document

d. A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved

 

43. ‘A’ entered into an agreement with 'B' to obtain undue favor from a member of the Government on the promise that 'A' will pay Rupees one lakh to /B' who will deliver the same to that member. A paid the amount to 'B' who in turn paid it to 'C', a member of Government for the said purpose as reward, 'C' subsequently refused to do any favor. On the basis of the above facts:

a. 'B' alone is responsible for his actions

b. Both 'B' and 'A' are liable as there was an abetment by conspiracy

c. 'C' alone is responsible as he misappropriated the money for his own use

d. ‘A’ has no ground to bring prosecution against “C, because at the time of agreement C's name was not known to 'B'

 

44. In cases tried by the Court of Sessions or a Chief Judicial Magistrate, the Court or such Magistrate, as the case may be, shall forward a copy of its or his finding and sentence, if any, to:

a. The Superintendent of Police in the area of whom the crime concerned was committed

b. The Police Station that conducted the investigation of the crime concerned

c. The High Court to which the trial court is subordinate

d. The District Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction the trial is held

 

45. Civil Procedure Code at the first hearing of the suit, the Court must

a. Frame and record issues

b. Record the evidence of plaintiff

c. Ascertain whether the allegations in the pleadings are admitted or denied

d. All of the above

 

46. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Injury is any harm whatever illegally caused to any person in his

a. Body or mind only

b. Body, mind, reputation or property

c. Body or reputation only

d. Body or property only

 

47. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as a public Prosecutor if he has been in practice for not less than

a. Seven years

b. Three years

c. Ten years

d. None of the above

 

48. Directions: For Assertion and Reason Type Question: Question consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion 'A' and the other labelled the Reason -R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion 'A' and the Reason 'R' are individually true it so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Assertion (A): Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 contains certain exceptions from criminal liability.

Reason (R): There cannot be universal criminal liability in all circumstances.

Codes:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the - correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

 

49. Which Section of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 provides for confirmation by the High Court an order of death penalty passed by Session Court prior to it's execution

a. Section 407

b. Section 412

c. Section 405

d. Section 404

 

50. In the BNS, nothing is an offence when it is done by a child below:

a. 12 years of age

b. Above seven but below 12 years of age

c. Below 14 years of age

d. None of the above

 

51. The Constitution of India secures to all its citizens-

a. Justice and Equality

b. Liberty

c. Fraternity

d. All of the above.

 

52. Assertion (A): Article 30 of the Constitution of India confers a right on all minorities to establish educational institutions.

Reason (R): The right to establish and administer educational institutions by the minorities is based solely on religion.

a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R)' are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

 

53. 'A' pulls down houses in good faith of saving human lives and property in a great fire. In this case, which of the following statements is correct?

a. He has committed an offence of mischief

b. He has committed an offence of house trespass

c. He has committed an offence of house breaking

d. He has committed no offence

 

54. At trial, it appears to the Magistrate that the case be ought to be tried by the Court of Sessions, in which Section of the Sanhita he shall commit the case?

a. 209

b. 362

c. 365

d. None of these

 

55. Under which of the following sections of BNS, 2023 the death sentence can be commuted without the consent of the offender:

a. Section 6

b. Section 5

c. Section 7

d. None of these

 

56. Under Section 419[1] BNSS who can direct the 'Public Prosecutor, to present an appeal to the Court of Session from an order of acquittal passed by Magistrate in respect of a cognizable and non-bailable offence:

a. District Magistrate

b. Chief Judicial Magistrate

c. High Court

d. None of the above

 

57. To prosecute a person under Section 3(8) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the following requirement is essential

a. Common Intention

b. Common Object

c. Cooperation

d. Similar Intention.

 

58. In which case did the Supreme Court observe “Equality of opportunity admits discrimination with reason and prohibits discrimination without reason”?

a. State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas

b. Air India v. Nargesh Mirza

c. Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib

d. Anwar ali Sarkar v. State of West Bengal

 

59. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India is related to liberty of press?

a. Article 19

b. Article 20

c. Article 21

d. Article 22

 

60. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that confession of co-accused are very weak evidence and no conviction can be based solely on such confession?

a. Nathu v. State of U.P.

b. Ram Prakash v. State of Punjab

c. Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P,

d. None of the above

 

61. Appeal in case of acquittal by a Magistrate may lie in:

a. High Court

b. Sessions Court

c. C.J.M's Court

d. No appeal lie

 

62. Which of the following among item A and item B are correct?

The right of private defence extends, subject to Section 37, to the causing of death of the assailant or aggressor in the following circumstances:

Item A: For defence of body:

1. Against an act which reasonably causes the apprehension of an assault to outrage the modesty

2. Against an act which reasonably causes the apprehension that the assailant will kill his children living in another city

3. Against an act which reasonably causes the apprehension that grievous hurt would otherwise be the consequence

Item B: For defence of property:

1. While the trespasser is engaged in house breaking during day time.

2. Against a thief who reasonably causes the defender to believe that he would lose his property

3. Against a person who commits mischief under such circumstances as may reasonably cause apprehension that grievous Hurt would be a consequence

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a. 1 and 3 of both items

b. 2 and 3 of both items

c. 3 alone of both items

d. 1 and 2 of both items

 

63. Which one among the following is not a primary Evidence?

a. A document executed in several parts

b. A copy made from or compared with original

c. Document executed in counterparts

d. Documents made by one uniform process

 

64. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’, is a: —

a. Directive Principle of State Policy

b. Statutory provision in Labor-Law

c. Fundamental Right

d. Matter of State to pass Bill

 

65. It has observed by the Supreme Court of India that the world ‘socialist’ in the Preamble enables the court to lean more and more in favour of nationalization and State ownership of industry in: —

a. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

b. Excel wear v. Union of India

c. A.B.S.K. Sangh (Bjiilway) v. Union of India

d. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India

 

66. Point out incorrect response—

The period of limitation for taking cognizance of an offence shall be—

a. Six months if offence is punishable with fine only

b. One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year

c. Three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one years but not exceeding three years

d. Five years, if the offence is punishable with death sentence

 

67. Article 15 of the Constitution of India does not permit the State to make special provision for one of the following which one is that?

a. Socially and educationally backward classes

b. A class of specific religion

c. Only scheduled caste and scheduled tribes

d. None of the above

 

68. Indicate the correct statement regarding the rights of an arrestee.

A person arrested without warrant has the right to

i. be informed of the particulars of the offence for which he is arrested.

ii. have a relative or friend named by him to be informed about his arrest.

iii. have an advocate of his choice remain present throughout interrogation.

iv. be medically examined by a medical officer.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. (i), (ii) and (iii)

b. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

c. (i), (ii) and (iv)

d. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

69. In a bailable offence…………..

a. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer only

b. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the court only

c. no condition can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer or the court

d. only reasonable conditions can be imposed by the court only

 

70. Previous statements for the purpose of contradicting a witness under Section 148 do not include

a. Statement made by a witness as accused in a previous case

b. Letter written by him

c. Deposition in another case

d. Admission made by him in a written statement

 

71. The principle of 'res judicata’ is provided in which of the following section of the BSA?

a. Section 140

b. Section 34

c. Section 160

d. Section 164

 

72. In which Sec. of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 confession made to the police is not admissible.

a. Section 23(1)

b. Section 24(1)

c. Section 32

d. Section 27

 

73. Which of the following is not a legal representative under Section 2(11) of the CPC?

a. Executors and administrators

b. Official assignee or receiver

c. Hindu coparceners

d. Residuary legatees

 

74. ‘B’ hires a hammer and a chisel from ‘A'. There after with these instruments he breaks into the house of ‘C and commits a theft there. A' is charged with the offence of abetment. In the case:

a. 'A' supplied the instruments for commission of the crime and hence is liable

b. A' received money for supplying the instruments of the crime (motive) and hence is liable

c. 'A' did not know that the hammer and chisel were being hired to commit a crime and hence is not liable

d. A' has joint liability

 

75. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees citizens the right to settle in any part of the territory of India?

a. Article 19(1) (a)

b. Article 19(1) (d)

c. Article 19(1) (e)

d. Article 19(1) (g)

 

76. Latent ambiguity in a document means ambiguity:

a. not subject to clarification by oral evidence

b. apparent on the face of the document

c. of hidden character and for the clarification of which oral evidence may be given

d. not allowed to be proved by oral evidence

 

77. A instigates B to murder C. B refuses to do so. A is guilty of which one of the following?

a. Criminal conspiracy

b. Abetment to attempt of murder

c. Abetment to commit murder

d. No offence

 

78. Even a "student" may be treated as an expert under Section 39 of the BSA. It was laid down by the Supreme Court in

a. Bhoginbhai Hirbhai v. State of Gujarat (1983)

b. Sankaria v. State of Rajasthan (1978)

c. Kanpur University v. Samir Gupta & Ors. (1983)

d. Punjab Singh v. State of Haryana (1984)

 

79. The question is whether the murder of X was committed by Y. The fact that Y produces a admission slip of hospital indicating dislocation of his lip during the period of alleged murder. Which one among the following is the Correct provision of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam under which it is relevant?

a. Section 6

b. Section 8

c. Section 10

d. Section 9

 

80. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under Section 430(3) of BNSS after conviction?

a. Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years

b. Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years

c. Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years

d. Where offence is exclusively bailable whether accused is on bail or not

 

81. ‘A’ dies leaving behind a son X and a married daughter Y. A suit filed by ‘A’, after his death can be continued by

a. ' X alone as legal representative

b. Y alone as legal representative

c. X, Y and the husband of Y as legal representative

d. X and Y both as legal representative

 

82. A suit dismissed under Order IX, Rule 8 of C.P.C. for non-appearance of the plaintiff can be restored under:—

a. Order IX, Rule 9

b. Order IX, Rule 10

c. Order IX, Rule 11

d. None of the above

 

83. When the Court has to form an opinion as to the electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the certifying authority which has issued the electronic signature certificate is:

a. Fact in issue

b. Relevant fact

c. Proved fact

d. None of the above

 

84. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure it is necessary for a party to prove that in spite of all due diligence, the matter could not be raised before the commencement of the trial:

a. Order XI Rule 12

b. Order VI Rule 17

c. Order VI Rule 16

d. Order V Rule 15

 

85. A corporation is ‘State’ for the purpose of enforcement of fundamental rights-

a. it is a body registered according to law

b. it is an agency or instrumentality of Government

c. it has to report to Government

d. the Government services are made applicable to its employees

 

86. The criteria for 'res gestae’:

a. proximity of time and place

b. community of purpose

c. continuity of action

d. all of the above

 

87. The question is, whether a certain document was written by A. In this case which of the following is/are relevant?

a. Another document is produced which is written by A.

b. The opinion of experts on the question whether the two documents were written by A.

c. The opinion of experts on the question whether the two documents were written by different persons.

d. Both (b) and (c).

 

88. The principle on which a dying declaration is admissible under Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, is indicated in the legal maxim.

a. Actori incumbit onus probandi

b. Nemo moriturus proesumitur mentiri

c. Dormiunt leges aliquando, munquam moriuntur

d. Fatetur facinus qui judicium figit

 

89. The Court application for plea bargaining by the accused, to satisfy itself that it is made voluntarily

a. Examines him in open Court

b. Examines him in Camera

c. Records his evidence on Oath

d. Seeks his affidavit

 

90. Who among the following is liable to explain the injuries to the accused in a murder trial?

a. The accused

b. The prosecution

c. The witnesses

d. None of these

 

91. Under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 the defense of 'Consent' is not available in cases of

a. Consent to cause death

b. Consent to cause grievous hurt

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

 

92. A fact is said to be "not proved":

a. When it is disproved

b. When, after considering the matters before it, the court believes that it does not exist

c. When a prudent man considers that the fact does not exist

d. When it is neither proved nor disproved

 

93. According to Supreme Court of India Jat community of various States is: —

a. backward class under Article 16(4)

b. not backward class under Article 16(4)

c. mainly socially backward class

d. not politically organized class

 

94. Safeguards against the arrest and detention are provided under which Article of the Constitution of India?

a. Article 25

b. Article 22

c. Article 14

d. Article 19

 

95. Against which of the following offences right of private defence of body does not extend to the causing of death?

a. Rape

b. Gratifying unnatural lust

c. Causing miscarriage

d. Kidnapping

 

96. By which Constitutional Amendment has Article 39A been inserted in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

a. The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act 1976

b. The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act 1978

c. The Constitution (46th Amendment) Act 1982

d. The Constitution (29th Amendment) Act 1972

 

97. The Constitution of India deals with provisions for maternity relief under: —

a. Article 40

b. Article 43

c. Article 42

d. Article 41

 

98. When a person gains something by unlawful means to which he is not legally entitled it is

a. Cheating

b. Wrongful gain

c. Fraud

d. Causing injury which is likely to cause death

 

99. Which of the following is not correct regarding provisions of bail in case of non-bailable offences?

a. Bail may be granted, if the court concerned comes to the conclusion that prosecution has failed to establish a prima-facie case

b. Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in spite of existence of a prima-facie case there is need to release such person on bail in view of facts and circumstances of case

c. Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may be required for being identified by witness during investigation

d. If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for 7 years or more, no person can be released on bail without giving an opportunity of hearing to the public prosecutor

 

100. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression.

Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against him-self.

a. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true

b. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false

c. ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.

d. None of the above

 

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