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UP UPO 2011
GS
1. Vitamin ‘C’ helps in the absorption of
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Iodine
d. Sodium
2. The full form of CAT is
a. Computerised Axial Topography
b. Computerised Arthritis Test
c. Computerised Axial Tomography
d. Computerised Abdominal Test
3. The chemical compound in the bleaching powder is
a. Calcium hydroxide
b. Calcium oxychloride
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Ammonium chloride
4. Photosynthesis is the process in which
a. Light energy is converted into electric energy
b. Light energy is converted into chemical energy
c. Chemical energy is converted into light energy
d. Electrical energy is converted into light energy
5. The speed of sound is maximum in
a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Gas
d. Vacuum
6. Which of the following is a genetic disease?
a. Beriberi
b. Cancer
c. Colour blindness
d. Filaria
7. Alternating Current is converted into Direct Current by
a. Dynamo
b. Motor '
c. Transformer
d. Rectifier
8. Who excavated the Harappan site at Dholavira?
a. J.P. Joshi
b. S.R. Rao
c. R.S. Bisht.
d. B.B. Lai
9. Which of the following Ashokan inscriptions describe the despatch of religious missionaries to five Yavana Kingdoms?
a. Rock Edit III
b. Rock Edict VIII
c. Rock Edict X
d. Rock Edict XIII
10. Which of the following sacred Buddhist places was situated on the river ‘Niranjana’?
a. Bodhagaya
b. Kushinagar
c. Lumbini
d. Rishipattana
11. Who is the author of ‘A Survey of Indian History’?
a. R.C. Mazumdar
b. D.D- Kosambi
c. K.M. Panikkar
d. Vincent Smith
12. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List-I List II
(Harappan) (Location)
A. Manda 1. Rajasthan
B. Diamabad 2. Haryana
C. Kalibangan 3. Jammu & Kashmir
D. Rakhigarhi 4. Maharashtra
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 1 2 3
13. What is the name of the National Leader who became the President (Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly in 1925?
a. Motilal Nehru
b. C.R. Das
c. Vallabhbhai Patel
d. Vitthalbhai Patel
14. Who amongst the following founded India League in 1875?
a. Jagannath Shankershet
b. Babau Sisir Kumar Ghose
c. G.S. Aiyer
d. Pherozeshah Mehta
15. Who among the following was responsible for helping in the enactment of Window Remarriage Act?
a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
c. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
d. Devendra Nath Tagore
16. Who was the founder of ‘Deccan Sabha’?
a. M.K. Gandhi
b. B.G.Tilak
c. M.G. Ranade
d. A.O. Hume
17. Who amongst the following urged the British Government to accept the responsibility of compulsory Primary Education?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c. Pherozeshah Mehta
d. DadabhaiNaoroji
18. Who first talked about the economic drain of India during the British rule?
a. Dadabhai Naoroji
b. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d. Mahatma Gandhi
19. Who was responsible for the introduction of English as the official language of India?
a. Lord Macaulay
b. William Bentinck
c. Sir Charles Wood
d. Lord Dalhousie
20. The ‘Swaraj Party’ was founded by
a. J.L. Nehru
b. Annie Besant
c. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah
d. Moti Lai Nehru
21. Who was the founder of Vikramsila Vishwavidhyalaya?
a. Gopal
b. Dharmapal
c. Devapal
d. Mahipal
22. The Jain Council, which made a final collection of scriptures and reduced them to writings in the fifth/sixth century, was held at
a. Kundapura
b. Nalanda
c. Valabhi
d. Vaishali
23. Rulers of which of the following dynasties issued coins made of lead?
a. Nandas
b. Mauryas
c. Satavahanas
d. Sungas
24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Country) (Capital)
A. Belgium 1. Brasilia
B. Romania 2. Brazzaville
C. Brazil 3. Brussels
D. Congo 4. Bucharest
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b.3 4 1 2
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
25. Which one of the following countries is not a land-locked country?
a. Armenia
b. Georgia
c. Azerbaizan
d. Laos
26. Which one of the following removed one day from its calendar and modified its standard time in December, 2011?
a. Japan
b. Fiji
c. Philippines
d. Samoa
27. The longest road tunnel of the world is located in
a. Norway
b. Switzerland
c. Japan
d. United States of America
28. Which of the following countries does not come within the group of BALKANS?
a. Greece
b. Croatia
c. Hungary
d. Albania
29. The correct sequence of the following countries in terms of total population (2010) in descending order is
a. Brazil, Pakistan, Indonesia, Nigeria
b. Pakistan, Indonesia, Nigeria, Brazil
c. Indonesia, Pakistan, Brazil, Nigeria
d. Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan, Nigeria
30. Which country is the largest producer of Steel in the world?
a. China
b. Japan
c. USA
d. India
31. Which one of the following rivers does not form delta?
a. Mahanadi
b. Krishna
c. armada
d. Godavari
32. The 79th amendment to the Indian Constitution relates to
a. Centre-State relations
b. Establishment of two political parties
c. Fundamental Rights
d. Reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
33. The Governor of a State does not appoint the
a. Chief Minister
b. Members of the State Public Service Commission
c. Judges of the High Court
d. Advocate General
34. The 91st amendment to the Constitution, pertains to
a. Panchayati Raj
b. Number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers
c. Election Petitions
d. Coalition Governments
35. The primary function of the Finance Commission of India is to
a. Make recommendations regarding distribution of taxes between centre and states
b. Prepare the annual budget
c. Advise the prime minister on financial matters
d. None of the above
36. Who amongst the following elect the Vice President of India?
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. Members of Lok Sabha
2. Members of Rajya Sabha
3. Members of Legislative Assemblies
4. Members of Legislative Councils
a. (1) and (2)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (1), (2) and (3)
d. (1), (2), (3) and (4)
37. What is the number of languages in the VIII schedule? (after 92nd Amendment to the Constitution)
a. 16
b. 18
c. 22
d. 24
38. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of the
a. Ministry of Home Affairs
b. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
c. President of India
d. Lok Sabha Speaker
39. The tax on import and export of goods is known as
a. Income Tax
b. Custom Duty
c. Trade Tax
d. Excise Duty
40. Who among the following has become the 30th Chess Grand Master of India?
a. Vidil Saintosh Gujarati
b. Sriramjha
c. S. Kidambi
d. Ramaram Laxman
41. Rajiv Gandhi National Sadhbavana Award for the year 2013 was given to
a. Nirmala Deshpande
b. Gautam Bhai
c. D.R. Mehta
d. Amjad AliKhan
42. Who was given the Jnanpith Award for 2011?
a. S.L. Bhyrappa
b. Vishwanath Prasad Tiwari
c. Javed Akhtar
d. Ravuri Bharadhwaja’
43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list:
List I List-II
(Sahitya Akademi Awardee) (Language)
A. Chandrakant Devtale 1. Malayalam
B. Guneswar Musahari 2. Sanskrit
C. Satchidanandan 3. Hindi
D. Ramji Thakkura 4. Bodo
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1 3 2 4
44. Alice Munro, the winner of 2013 Nobel Prize for Literature belongs to
a. Canada
b. USA
c. Britain
d. Australia
45. The present Finance Commission constituted by Government of India is the
a. 12th Finance Commission
b. 13th Finance Commission
c. 14th Finance Commission
d. 15th Finance Commission
46. The focal theme of the 102nd session of the Indian Science Congress to be held in Mumbai in January 2015 is
a. Advancement of Science
b. Science and Technology for Human Development
c. Scientific Research in Agriculture
d. Technology for Space
47. The ‘Kanya Vidya Dhan Yojna’ launched by U.P. Government is meant for girls who have passed?
a. Class V
b. Class VIII
c. Class X
d. Class XII
48. Malala Yousufzai, who has been in the news, belongs to
a. Afghanistan
b. India
c. Pakistan
d. Bangladesh
49. UNO has declared the year 2014 as the
a. International Year of Cooperatives
b. International Year of Family Farming
c. International Year of Water Cooperation
d. International Year of Reawakening
50. Red colour in tomato is due to
a. Carotene
b. Lycopene
c. Xanthophyll
d. Solanin
LAW
51. Which section of Evidence Act deals with Primary evidence?
a. Section 60
b. Section 62
c. Section 64
d. Section 65
52. Which section of the Evidence Act deals with accomplice?
a. Section 32
b. Section 135
c. Section 133
d. Section 141
53. State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhyay is concerned with
a. Conspiracy
b. Confession
c. Estoppel
d. Presumption
54. Oral evidence must be
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Circumstantial
d. All of the above
55. A party may put any question to a witness called by it
a. At its pleasure
b. With the permission of the court
c. With the consent of opposite party
d. None of the above
56. Content of electronic records are proved in accordance with the provisions of
a. Section 65, Evidence Act
b. Section 64A, Evidence Act
c. Section 67A, Evidence Act
d. Section 65B, Evidence Act
57. A kills B. A is charged for murder. In this case burden of proof is on
a. The State
b. 'A'
c. B's legal representatives
d. Both (a) and (c)
58. Under which section of the Evidence Act provisions for presumption as to Gazettes in Electronic forms has been made?
a. Section 81A
b. Section 85A
c. Section 85B
d. Section 88A
59. Relevancy of expert evidence for the purpose of Evidence Act is contained in
a. Sections 10 to 20
b. Sections 35 to 40
c. Sections 45 to 48
d. Sections 59 & 60
60. Which one of the following sections relates to Secondary evidence?
a. Section 60
b. Section 80
c. Section 63
d. Section 62
61. Which one of the following case related to the dying declaration?
a. Mehboob Shah v. King Emperor
b. Queen v. Abdullah
c. Motayyav. King Emperor
d. M.C. Vergese v. Ponane
62. Photocopies of a document made from the original are
a. Primary evidence
b. Secondary evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. None of the above is correct
63. The facts showing the existence of any state of mind under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act relate to
a. Intention
b. Knowledge
c. Good faith
d. All of the above
64. Answer with the help of code. Handwriting may be proved by
1. Evidence of the writer himself.
2. Opinion of the expert.
3. Evidence of the person acquainted with the handwriting.
4. The court under Section 73, Evidence Act.
a. Only (1) and (2) are correct.
b. Only (2), (3) and (4) are correct.
c. Only (1) and (4) are correct
d. (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct
65. Answer with the help of codes.
Assertion (A): The testimony of relative and interested witnesses may be relied on by the court.
Reason (R): Mere relationship does not by itself discredit the testimony of a witness.
a. Both and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) Is true, but (R) is false
d. (A) Is false, but (R) is correct
66. “Evidence obtained by undesirable means is admissible if it is otherwise relevant.” The court said so in
a. Pushpa Devi M. Jatia v. M.L. Wadhawah
b. Hurprashad v. Sheo Dayal
c. Kalpnath Rai v. State of Maharashtra
d. Rouny v. State of Maharashtra
67. A person suffering from any mental disorder
a. Can be exempted from criminal liability ipso-facto.
b. Cannot be exempted at all.
c. Can be exempted from such liability at the discretion of the court.
d. Can be exempted from such liability on proof by expert evidence of this effect.
68. “In the matter of kidnapping and rape, the evidence given by prosecutrix being illiterate and rustic young woman, some contradictions and omission are natural as her recollection memory, observance and narration of chain of events.”
It has been held by Supreme Court in 2011 case.
a. Manoj Yadav v. Pushpa
b. State of U.P. v. Chhottay Lai
c. Madhu Verma v. Urmila Devi
d. Lakhan Lai v. State of Bihar
69. To what facts of the following the rule of relevancy have been discussed under Section 8 of the Evidence Act?
a. Motive
b. Preparation
c. Conduct
d. All of the above
70. Which of the following statement is correct?
I. Evidence of character in civil cases is irrelevant.
II. Previous conviction is relevant as evidence of bad character.
III. Evidence of good character is irrelevant in criminal cases.
IV. Word cases character includes reputation only.
a. (I) and (III) are correct
b. (I), (II) and (III) are correct
c. (II) and (III) are correct
d. All are correct
71. Under which provision of Cr.P.C., a court may convert summons case into warrant case?
a. Section 259
b. Section 20
c. Section 258
d. All the above
72. Answer with the help of codes.
Assertion (A): Word 'wife' includes divorced wife.
Reason (R): Domestic relationship means in the nature of marriage.
a. Both and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true
73. Which of the following statements are correct in trial of summon cases?
I. Framing of charge is necessary.
II. In petty cases Court can convict the accused person in his absence.
III. In case of withdrawal of complaint Court shall discharge the accused.
IV. Court can convert summon cases into warrant cases.
a. (I) and (IV)
b. (II) and (IV)
c. (I) and (III)
d. (II) and (III)
74. Which of the following section of Code of Criminal Procedure is related to the legal aid to accused?
a. Section 302
b. Section 304
c. Section 306
d. Section 308
75. A Judicial Magistrate may authorise the detention of an accused in police custody
a. For maximum 7 days
b. For maximum 15 days
c. For maximum 60 days
d. For maximum 90 days
76. In case of an offence triable summarily, which one of the following sentence can be passed?
a. Not exceeding three months
b. Not exceeding two months
c. Not exceeding six months
d. None of the above
77. The power to grant anticipatory bail under Section 438 Cr.P.C. vests with
a. The Court of Magistrate
b. Only the Court of Session
c. Only the High Court
d. Both the Court of Session and the High Court
78. A declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of the Cr.P.C. can be set aside by
a. Court of Session
b. High Court
c. Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. The Magistrate issuing the search warrant
79. Which one of the following is not essential element of First Information Report?
a. It is an information given to a Police Officer.
b. Information must relate to a cognizable offence.
c. It is an information first in point of time.
d. Information may relate to any kind of offence whether cognizable or non- cognizable.
80. Under Section 29 of the Code of Criminal Procedure the Second-Class Magistrate can pass sentence upto
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. All the above
81. The Supreme Court has issued guidelines while effecting the arrest of a sub-ordinate judicial officers in the following cases:
a. Delhi Judicial Service Association v. Delhi Administration
b. Citizens for Democracy v. State of Assam
c. Delhi Judicial Service Association v. State of Gujarat
d. Peoples Union for Human Rights v. Union of India
82. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Information in Cognizable Cases— Section 154 Cr.P.C.
b. Arrest by Magistrate—Section 44 Cr.P.C.
c. Contents of charge—Section 211 Cr.P.C.
d. Trial more than one offence—Section 218 Cr.P.C.
83. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the classification of compoundable and non- compoundable offences has been provided
a. In the First Schedule
b. In the Second Schedule
c. In Section 320 Cr.P.C
d. In Section 321 Cr.P.C.
84. ‘Bailable offence’ means an offence which is shown as bailable in
a. The First Schedule of Cr.P.C.
b. The Second Schedule of Cr.P.C.
c. Section 425 Cr.P.C.
d. Section 426 Cr.P.C.
85. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the term “Offence” has been defined?
a. Section 40
b. Section 2(n)
c. Section 2(w)
d. None of the above
86. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure a court at any stage of trial may recall and re-examine any person already examined?
a. Section 311
b. Section 323
c. Section 313
d. Section 315
87. Which of the following statement is wrong? If a person forcibly resists the endeavour to arrest him, the Police Officer may:
a. Use all means necessary to effect the arrest.
b. Cause the death of such person irrespective of the offence has been committed.
c. Cause the death of such person accused of murder.
d. Cause the death of such person accused of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
88. What maximum time limit has been fixed by the Supreme Court in Subramaniam Swami v. Dr. Manmohan Singh case in which the government must give sanction for prosecutions of public servants covered by Cr.P.C. and Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
a. Two months
b. Three months
c. Four months
d. Six months
89. Which one of the following case is related to anticipatory bail?
a. State of Haryana v. Jai Singh
b. Gajanand Agarwal v. State of Orissa
c. Kalyan Chandra Sarkar v. Rajesh Ranjan
d. Joginder alias Jindi v. State of Haryana
90. Which one of the following cases is related to Section 144 Cr.P.C.?
a. Ram Avtarv. State of U.P.
b. State of Karnataka v. Parveen Togadia
c. Bhagwan Dutt v. Kamla Devi
d. Iqbal Ahmad v. State of U.P.
91. In which of the following cases it was held that “The amount awarded under Section 125 Cr.P.C. for maintenance was adjustable against the alimony amount awarded in matrimonial proceeding under Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and was not to be given over and above the same.”?
a. Satya v. Teja Singh
b. Yamuna Baiv. Anant Rao
c. Sudeep Chaudhary v Radha Chaudhary
d. Rewati Bai v. Jogeshwer
92. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property attached or the sale proceeding on appearance within
a. 6 months of attachment
b.2 years of attachment
c. 3 years of attachment
d. one year of attachment
93. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that “Except in those cases where there are reasonable grounds for believing that the person accused of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment has been guilty of such offence, in all other cases non-bailable offences judicial discretion shall always be exercised by the court in favour of granting bail.”?
a. Afzal Khan v. State of Gujarat
b. Gurcharan Singh v. State (Delhi Administration)
c. Chandra Swami v. Central Bureau of Investigation
d. Gurbaksh Singh v. State of Punjab
94. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an arrested person is to be examined by the Government Medical Officer immediately after such arrest?
a. Section 55A
b. Section 60A
c. Section 54
d. Section 55
95. Under which section of Cr.P.C. offences falling under Section 376 and 376(a) to (d) IPC as far as possible are to be tried by a woman Presiding Judge?
a. Section 26
b. Section 26(b)
c. Section 55
d. None of the above
96. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable under
a. Section 363 IPC
b. Section 509 IPC
c. Section 511 IPC
d. Section 354 IPC
97. ‘A’ being executor to the will of a deceased person dishonestly disobeys the law which directs him to divide the effects according to the will and appropriates them to his own use. Which offence ‘A’ has committed?
a. Theft
b. Criminal misappropriation
c. Criminal breach of trust
d. Cheating
98. The principle of proximity to crime under Criminal Law is irrelevant, while dealing the liability for the offence of
a. Theft and dacoity
b. Culpable homicide and murder
c. Kidnapping and abduction
d. Abetment and conspiracy
99. ‘A’ commits theft of property in B’s possession and while committing this theft he has a loaded pistol under the garment kept for the purpose of hurting ‘B’ in case ‘B’ should resists. The offence committed by ‘A’ is defined under which section of IPC, 1860?
a. Section 382
b. Section 379
c. Section 390
d. Section 381
100. Information Technology Act, 2008 has made amendments in the following Sections of IPC:
a. Section 463
b. Section 466 and Section 477A
c. (a) and (b) both are correct
d. only (b) is correct
101. ‘A’ a police officer tortures ‘B’ in order to induce ‘B’ to confess that he committed a crime. Under which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860, the police officer is guilty of an offence?
a. Section 325
b. Section 326
c. Section 328
d. Section 330
102. ‘A’ picked up a revolver and believing it to be loaded pulled the trigger with the criminal intention of shooting ‘B’ dead. Fortunately the revolver was not loaded and ‘B’ escaped unhurt. ‘A’ has committed the offence of
a. Murder
b. Attempt to murder
c. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
d. 'A' has committed no offence
103. “All murder is culpable homicide but all culpable homicide is not murder.” This statement has been given by
a. Justice Madhvan Nair
b. Justice Melville
c. Justice Sharfuddin
d. Justice Sulaiman
104. ‘A’ has knowledge that her husband ‘B’ has committed murder knowingly conceals ‘B’ in order to screen him from legal punishment. ‘A’ is liable for
a. Murder by reason knowing common intention
b. Harbouring
c. Abetment by aid
d. 'A' has committed no offence
105. “To preserve one’s life is generally speaking a duty but it may be the highest duty to sacrifice it.” This observation was made in Queen v. Dadly and Stephens by
a. Lord Denman
b. Lord Coleridge
c. Lord Action
d. Justice Pollock
106. ‘A’ and his four associates attempted to commit theft at the place of ‘B’ and caused hurt to ‘B’. They were forced to retreat without collecting the booty because of stiff resistance by the inmates. They are guilty of
a. Theft
b. Robbery
c. Dacoity
d. Criminal misappropriation
107. A married man commits the offence of adultery ‘if he has sexual intercourse with a/ an
a. Unmarried woman.
b. Married woman except his wife.
c. Any woman except his wife.
d. Unmarried woman without her consent.
108. In crimes as in other things “they also serve who only stand and wait” was held in
a. Mahboob Shah v. Emperor
b. Rishideo Panday v. State of U.P.
c. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
d. Kripal Singh v. State of U.P.
109. Which one of the following case is related to the offence of rape?
a. Kuldeep Kumar Mahato v. State of Bihar
b. T.D. Vadgama v. State of Gujarat
c. Baldeo Singh v. State
d. Bidyadhar Naik v. State of Orissa
110. Under which section of IPC, kidnapping for ransom is provided?
a. Section 364
b. Section 362
c. Section 363A
d. Section 364A
111. The maxim ‘volenti non fit injuria’ has been incorporated in which section of the Indian Penal Code?
a. Section 87
b. Section 90
c. Section 92
d. None of the above
112. Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act.
Reason (R): Mistake of fact is a good defence and Mistake of Law is no defence.
a. Both and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
b. Both and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true
113. ‘A’ takes up a stick saying to B’, “I will give you a beating”; Point out which of the offence, if any mentioned below has been committed by ‘A’?
a. Criminal Intimidation
b. Assault
c. No offence to commit hurt
d. Attempt
114. Match List I with List
List-I List-II
A. Reg v. Govinda 1. Insanity
B. State of Maharashtra
v. M.N. George 2. Common Intention
C. MehoobShah v.
Emperor 3. Murder
D. McNaghten Case 4. Mens rea
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 1 2 3 4
115. Which Section of IPC deals with voluntary intoxication?
a. Section 84
b. Section 85
c. Section 86
d. Section 87
116. An offence against property may be
a. Wrongful Confinement
b. Criminal breach of trust only
c. Defamation
d. Public nuisance
117. Against which of the following offences the right to private defence of property extend to voluntary causing of death?
a. Theft
b. Criminal misappropriation of property
c. Robbery
d. Criminal trespass
118. Which of the following is a kind of punishment under Section 53 of the IPC?
a. Whipping
b. Fine
c. Servitude
d. Transportation
119. ‘A’ a police officer without warrant apprehends ‘Z’ who has committed Murder. A has committed the offence of
a. Wrongful Confinement
b. Wrongful Restraint
c. a and b both
d. No offence
120. Bride burning has been made as an offence under Indian Penal Code in which Section?
a. Section 300
b. Section 302
c. Section 304
d. Section 304B
121. ‘A’ and ‘B’ plan to murder ‘C’ next day. They are guilty of
a. The offence of planning
b. The offence of criminal conspiracy
c. The offence of attempting the murder
d. No offence
122. “Expression ‘unsoundness of mind has not been defined in Indian Penal Code and has mainly been treated as a equivalent to insanity. An accused who seek exoneration from liability of any act under Section 84 of IPC is to prove legal insanity and not medical insanity.” It was held by the Supreme Court in following case:
a. Abrarv. State of U.P.
b. Surendra Misra v. State of Jharkhand
c. C.M.Sharmav. State of A.P.
d. Gita v. State of U.P.
123. Match the List I and List II with the help of codes.
List-I List-II
A. Delivery of property 1. Criminal breach
of trust
B. Taking the property 2. Criminal
misappropriation
C. Entrustment of property 3. Theft
D. Convertibility of property
innocently goes to one's
own use 4. Extortion
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 3 1 2 4
124. 'X' drives very fast through a crowded road to catch a flight knowing that his act in all probability may cause death. ‘Y’ is killed by his vehicle. ‘X’ is guilty of
a. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
b. Murder
c. Grievous hurt
d. Negligence
125. The word “illegal” is applicable to everything which
a. Is an offence
b. Is prohibited by law
c. Furnishes ground for civil action
d. All the above
126. ‘A’ puts jewels into a box belonging to ‘B’ with the intention that they may be found in that box, and this circumstances may cause ‘B’ to be convicted of theft. ‘A’ has committed the offence under which Section of IPC given below?
a. Section 191
b. Section 193
c. Section 192
d. 'A' has committed no offence
127. Acts which come in the category of ‘culpable homicide not amounting to murder’ are mentioned in which section of IPC?
a. Section 300
b. Section 299
c. Section 299 and 300
d. Section 302
128. What is not necessary to constitute an offence of criminal conspiracy?
a. Two or more persons
b. Five or more persons
c. Agreement to cause illegal act
d. If act is not crime, to do some act in pursuance of agreement
129. “In an appeal against acquittal in the absence of perversity in the judgement and order, interference by the Supreme Court while exercising its extraordinary jurisdiction, is not warranted.” In 2011, in which case it was held by the Supreme Court?
a. Ram Gupta v. State of Kerala
b. Pratap Kumar Naik v. State of Orissa
c. Pradip Nath v. Reena Nath
d. Mrinal Das v. State of Tripura
130. In which case the Supreme Court has struck down Section 303 of IPC as unconstitutional?
a. Machchi Singh v. State of Punjab
b. Bachchan Singh v. State of Punjab
c. Santa Singh v. State of Punjab
d. Mitthu Singh v. State of Punjab
131. Under para 221 of U.P. Police Regulations, who has power to expunge the names of the offender from absconded register?
a. District Superintendent of Police
b. District Magistrate
c. Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. Home Minister of State
132. Who is the incharge of a police ‘out post’ under the U.P. Police Regulations?
a. Head Constable
b. Station writer
c. Circle Inspector
d. Inspector
133. As per paragraph 103, U.P. Police Regulations who is responsible by Sections 154 and 155(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 for the correct recording of all reports of crimes, whether cognizable or non-cognizable?
a. Superintendent of Police
b. Circle-Inspector
c. Officer-incharge of Station
d. Sub-ordinate sub-inspector of Station
134. Inquests, Post-mortem examination and treatment of wounded persons are provided in which paragraph of U.P. Police Regulations?
a. Para 129 to 146
b. Para 147 to 164
c. Para 104 to 128
d. None of the above
135. Under the Police Act, 1861 the term “Property” does not include:
a. Movable property
b. Money
c. Immovable property
d. Valuable security
136. Which one of the following is included under the term District Superintendent of Police?
a. Joint or Additional District Superintendent
b. Dy. District Superintendent
c. Divisional District Superintendent
d. None of the above
137. A Police Officer shall be at liberty to resign his office, unless he shall have given to his superior officer notice in writing for a period
a. Not less than three months
b. Not less than one month
c. Not less than two months
d. Not less than six months
138. Provisions to depute additional force in the neighbourhood of Railway and Public other works is given under the Police Act
a. Section 10
b. Section 12
c. Section 13
d. Section 14
139. A Village Police (Chaukidar) is appointed by the
a. Superintendent of Police
b. Inspector General of Police
c. District Magistrate
d. Station Officer
140. Which section of the Police Act, 1861 has not been repealed?
a. 37
b. 38
c. 39
d. 40
141. In which of the following sections of Police Act, 1861 the provision for “Special Police Officer” has been made?
a. Section 17
b. Section 16
c. Section 14
d. Section 15
142. How many categories of ‘History Sheets’ are made in the U.P. Police Regulations?
a. Two categories
b. Three categories
c. Four categories
d. No category
143. The Police (U.P. Amendment) Act, 1939 came into force on
a. 1st January, 1939
b. 1st May, 1939
c. 1st July, 1939
d. 1st March, 1939
144. Which chapter of U.P. Regulations provide provisions for Regulation and Surveillance of bad characters?
a. Chapter 20
b. Chapter 19
c. Chapter 21
d. None of the above
145. Who is the officer-in-charge of the Reserve Police Line under the U.P. Police Regulations?
a. Circle Inspector
b. Circle Inspector
c. Reserve Inspector
d. Sub-ordinate Sub-Inspector
146. Provisions relating to estoppel are given in
a. Chapter 7 of the Evidence Act
b. Chapter 8 of the Evidence Act
c. Chapter 9 of the Evidence Act
d. Chapter 10 of the Evidence Act
147. Match the List:
List I List-II
(Subject matter) (Section of I.E. Act)
A. Indecent and Scandalous
questions 1. Section 155
B. Impeaching credit
of witness 2. Section 152
C. Question intended
to insult or annoy 3. Section 154
D. Question by
party to his own witness 4. Section 151
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 4 2 3
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 4 1 2 3
148. Which of the following section of Evidence Act recognize the principle that “Hearsay evidence is no evidence”?
a. Section 60
b. Section 64
c. Section 91
d. Section 92
149. “The statement of witnesses based on information received from others is inadmissible.” Which one of the following option is not correct?
a. Because the person giving such evidence does not feel any responsibility.
b. Because the truth is diluted and diminished.
c. Because there is ample scope of playing fraud.
d. None of the above
150. What are the questions which are lawful in Cross-examination?
a. To test his veracity
b. To discover who he is
c. To take his credit by injuring his character
d. All of the above