UP APO 2008
GS
1. The theme of Novel ‘Anandamath’ is based, on:
a. Chuar revolt
b. Poligar revolt
c. Sannyasi revolt
d. Talukedar's revolt
2. The winner of Santosh Trophy, 2008 was:
a. Karnataka
b. Service
c. Punjab
d. West Bengal
3. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. International Red Cross Committee - Geneva
b. International Court of justice - The Hague
c. European Economic Community - Brussels
d. Food and Agricultural Organisation - New York
4. The lines drawn on a map through places having equal heights above sea level are called:
a. Contours
b. Isobars
c. Isotherms
d. Isotopes
5. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement with Dandi March in:
a. 1928
b. 1929
c. 1930
d. 1931
6. Vaycom Satyagraha was mainly a protest:
a. Against tyranny of land holders
b. Against untouchability
c. For self-rule
d. For complete independence
7. Who among the following rules has strong leanings towards to Jainism?
a. Brihadratha
b. Dasaratha
c. Huvishka
d. Kharavela
8. Olympics, 2012, would be held at:
a. Berlin
b. Moscow
c. London
d. Paris
9. Which of the following is not mentioned in the second rock edict of Ashoka?
a. Chola
b. Pandya
c. Satavahana
d. Satiyaputo
10. Ozone layer is depleted by which one of the following?
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen
d. CFC
11. The Bank to which Union Cabinet has recently given its approval for merger with the State Bank of India, is:
a. Bank of Maharashtra
b. Bank of Mysore
c. Bank of Patiala
d. Bank of Saurashtra
12. Ankleshwar oil field lies in:
a. Assam
b. Bihar
c. Gujarat
d. Maharashtra
13. Vernacular Press Act was passed by:
a. Lord Curzon
b. Lord Hardinge
c. Lord Lytton
d. Lord Wellesley
14. Which is the correct chronological sequence of nationalization of the following Bank in India?
a. State Bank of India
b. 14 Commercial Banks
c. Reserve Bank of India
d. 6 Commercial Banks
Code:
a. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
b. (III) (I) (IV) (II)
c. (III) (I) (II) (IV)
d. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
15. With which of the following periodicals was Annie Besant associated?
I. New India
II. Young India
III. Indian People
IV. Common weal
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
a. (I) and (II)
b. (II) and (III)
c. (I) and (IV)
d. (III) and (IV)
16. The Pachauri Committee set up by the Central Government relates to:
a. Administrative reforms
b. Police reforms
c. Problems of the minorities
d. Setu samudram project
17. Maga, Kuki, Paite and Meitei Communities live in:
a. Manipur
b. Meghalaya
c. Nagaland
d. Tripura
18. The first battle of Panipat was fought set ween:
a. Akbar and Hemu
b. Babar and Ibrahim Lodi
c. Humayaun and Sher Shah Suri
d. Prithviraj Chauhan and Mohammad Ghori
19. Where are the Headquarters of Dera Sachha Saba Ram Rahim Singh?
a. Bhatinda
b. Damdami Taksal
c. Sirsa
d. Panchkula
20. 'The new list of Seven Wonders of the World does not include:
a. Eiffel Tower
b. Taj Mahal
c. The Great Wall of China
d. The Petra in Jordan
21. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): Jhansi was established by Orchha rule Vir Singh Bundela.
Reason (R): Rani Laxmibai took, a leading role in the uprising of 1857.
a. (A) and (R) are both correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. (A) and (R) are both correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is correct but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is correct.
22. In which chronological order, the following event took place?
I. Chauri Chaura, Episode
II. Champaran Satyagraha
III. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
IV. Rowlatt Satyagraha
Codes:
a. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
b. (IV) (III) (II) (I)
c. (II) (IV) (III) (I)
d. (II) (I) (IV) (III)
23. Whom among the following founded “Indian Home Rule Society” in England?
a. Annie Basant
b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c. Lala Hardayal
d. Shyamji Krishna Varma
24. A special type of aneroid barometer used in measuring altitudes is called:
a. Anemometer
b. Altimeter
c. Chronometer
d. Sextant
25. The most densely populated SAARC Country is:
a. Bangladesh
b. India
c. Pakistan
d. Sri Lanka
26. Which one of the following States in India has the longest Forest Area?
a. Maharashtra
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Rajasthan
d. Uttar Pradesh
27. The terminal colours in a rainbow are:
a. Blue and Red
b. Green and Yellow
c. Indigo and Orange
d. Violet and Red
28. India's space launching base Sri Harikota is located in:
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Karnataka
c. Orissa
d. Tamil Nadu
29. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees Freedom of Press?
a. Article 16
b. Article 19
c. Article 22
d. Article 31
30. From 2009 the two new member of NATO will be:
a. Albania and Croatia
b. Austria and Greece
c. Bulgaria and Turkey
d. Romania and Poland
31. Light year is the unit of:
a. Time
b. Mass
c. Distance
d. Intensity of Light
32. In Beijing Olympics, how many gold medals China won?
a. 49
b. 50
c. 51
d. 52
33. The period for XI Five Year Plan is:
a. Year 2006-2011
b. Year 2007-2011
c. Year 2007-2012
d. Year 2008-2013
34. Which of the following is essential for plants to produce their food?
a. Oxygen
b. Starch
c. Proteins
d. Carbon dioxide
35. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
A. Malanj Khand I. Coal
B. Korba II. Diamond
C. Parma III. Copper ore
D. Kodarma IV. Mica
Code:
A B C D
a. III I II IV
b. I II III IV
c. III IV I II
d. IV III II I
36. Which pairs are wrongly matched?
I. Typhoon - China Sea
II. Hurricane - India Ocean
III. Cyclone - West Indies
IV. Tornadoes - Australia
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
a. (I) (II) and (III)
b. (I) (II) and (IV)
c. (I) (III) and (IV)
d. (II) (III) and (IV)
37. The comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by:
a. Chairman of the Planning Commission
b. Finance Minister
c. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
d. President
38. Who has been awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Puraskar, 2007?
a. Mahesh Bhupati
b. Sania Mirza
c. Anju Bobby George
d. Mahendra Singh Dhoni
39. Which one of the following sources provides a vivid description of Sindh?
a. Chachnamah
b. Insha-I-Mehru
c. Khazaivul Futuh
d. Tarikh-I-Firuzshahi
40. Which one of the following awards was conferred on Sunita Williams?
a. Kalinga Award
b. PadmaSri
c. Padma Bhushan
d. Padma Vibhushan
41. The foreign emperor, who requested Samudragupta, to grant permission to build a Buddha Vihara in India, was:
a. Mahender Varman
b. Megha Varman
c. Shashanka Varman
d. Yasho Varman
42. Which one of the following rules had performed four ‘Ashwamedha sacrifices’?
a. Chandragupta
b. Pravarsena-I
c. Pushyamitra Shunga
d. Samudragupta
43. On which Index, is the rate of Inflation based?
a. Consumer Price Index
b. Wholesale Price Index
c. Industrial Workers Price Index
d. Rural Labour Consumer Price
44. The President of India can be removed from his office only on the ground of:
a. Disobedience of the Parliament
b. Incapability
c. Proven misbehavior
d. Violation of the Constitution
45. Which one of the following is not correctly
a. Fiji - Suva
b. Finland - Oslo
c. Guyana - George town
d. Lebanon - Beirut
46. “Indra-dhanush - 2007” is:
a. An Indian aircraft
b. A Japanese satellite launched by India
c. A newly developed India missile
d. Second bilateral Indo-UK air exercise
47. Field Marshal SHFJ Manek Shaw breathe his last at:
a. Delhi
b. Chennai
c. Wellington
d. Ooty
48. Who, among the following, holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?
a. Election Commissioner
b. Governor of a State
c. Judge of the Supreme Court
d. Speaker of Lok Sabha
49. The most toxic metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is:
a. Cadmium
b. Lead
c. Copper
d. Mercury
50. The 34th G-8 summit was held in July 2008 in:
a. Okinawa
b. Pans
c. Tokyo
d. Toyako
LAW
51. Some of the prescribed duties for the mounted police are:
I. Patrolling of roads
II. Escorting prisoners and treasure
III. Ceremonial escorts
IV. Traffic control duty
Choose the correct answer given below:
a. (I) and (II) are correct
b. (I), (II) and (III) are correct
c. (II) and (III) are correct
d. All are correct
52. In which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, it has been provided that facts which form part of the same transaction, are relevant?
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 7
53. R v. Dudley and Stephen is relevant to the general exception to criminal liability on the ground of:
a. Accident
b. Mistake of fact
c. Rights of private defence
d. Necessity
54. A, intentionally to disfigure a girl’s face, threw acid upon her. Thought her face was cured but she suffered severe bodily pain for about six months. A is guilty of:
a. Assault
b. An act of criminal force
c. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt
d. Attempt to commit murder
55. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Vishwanath v. State of UP I. Section 229, IPC
B. Abettor II. Section 107, IPC
C. Abetment of a thing III. Section 108, IPC
D. Kusa Majhi v. State
of Orissa IV. Section 10, IPC
Code:
A B C D
a. (IV) (III) (II) (I)
b. (I) (III) (II) (IV)
c. (III) (I) (II) (IV)
d. (I) (II) (III) (IV
56. Whenever the occurrence of an offence enumerated under para 101 of the U.P. Police Regulations is reported, copies of the report will be sent immediately in red envelopes to the concerning officers. Which one of the following offence does not fall under this class?
a. Dacoity
b. Criminal conspiracy
c. Forging of currency notes
d. Torture by police
57. In which kind of proceeding a wife is a competent witness?
I. In civil proceedings
II. In criminal proceedings
III. She cannot be a witness
IV. Both in civil and criminal proceedings
Select the correct answer with the help of Code given below:
Codes:
a. (I) (II) and (IV)
b. (I) Only
c. (II) Only
d. (III) Only
58. For an offence of kidnapping from lawful guardianship the age of a girl must be:
a. Below 16 years
b. Below 18 years
c. Below 15 years
d. Below 21 years
59. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act provides that improper admission or rejection of evidence shall not be ground of itself for a new trial?
a. Section 166
b. Section 167
c. Section 163
d. Section 150
60. Constitution of force under Section 2 of the Police Act, 1861 provides which of following:
I. Constitution of the Police Force by the State Government
II. The pay and all other conditions of service of members of the subordinate ranks by the State Government
III. Termination and dismissal of service of the members of the services of the members of the Police Force
IV. Suspension and dismissal of service of the members of the Police Force.
Choose the rights answer from the following codes:
a. (I) and (IV) are correct
b. (I) and (III) are correct
c. (I) and (II) are correct
d. (II) and (III) are correct
61. Which one of the following pairs is not correct matched?
a. Police report : Section 2(r)
b. Cognizable offence : Section 2(c)
c. Bailable offence : Section 2(b)
d. Investigation : Section 2(h)
62. A inserted his hand in the pocket of B in order to steal his purse but B’s pocket was empty:
a. A is guilty of committing theft
b. A is guilty of attempting to commit theft
c. A is only at state of preparations, hence not guilty
d. A is only at state of preparation, hence not guilty
63. Consider the following statements:
I. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
II. The provisions relating to Chapters VIII, X and XI under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall not apply to the State of Nagaland and to the Tribal Areas.
III. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall came into force on 25 January, 1974
IV. Chapter II of Cr.P.C. deals with Constitution of Criminal Courts and Offices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. (I) (II) (III) and (IV)
b. (II) (III) and (IV) Only
c. (II) and (III) Only
d. (I) and (IV) Only
64. Evidence given by a dumb witness in written form under Section 119 of Evidence Act is a form of:
a. Documentary Evidence
b. Oral Evidence
c. Electronic Evidence
d. None of the above
65. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a Criminal Court may under Section 166A of Cr.P.C. issue a:
a. Search warrant
b. Letter of request
c. Summon
d. None of the above
66. A witness is asked whether he was not dismissed from a situation for dishonesty. He denies it. Evidence is allowed to show that he was dismissed for dishonesty. The evidence is:
a. Not admissible
b. Admissible
c. Not relevant
d. Relevant therefore admissible
67. Section 265A of Cr.P.C. applies to cases where the punishment is for:
a. Seven years
b. More than seven years
c. Ten years
d. Life imprisonment
68. Consider the following statements:
I. In specified cases joint trial of several accused persons is permissible.
II. An accused person can assert a right to a joint trial with his co-accused.
III. Normally, it is the rights of the prosecution to decide whom it prosecutes.
IV. The prosecution can decide to array a person or a co-accused and instead examine his as a witness, for the prosecution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct
b. (I), (II) and (III) are correct
c. (II), (III) and (IV) are correct
d. (I), (III) and (IV) are correct
69. Who among the following are Gazetted Officer in the Police Force?
I. Inspector
II. Sub-Inspector
III. Superintendents
IV. Assistant
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Superintendents Codes:
a. (I) (III) and (IV)
b. (III) and (IV)
c. (II) (III) and (IV)
d. All the above
70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer with the help of codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Section 73 i. Sedition
B. Section 84 ii. Unsound mind
C. Section 124A iii. Rioting
D. Section 146 iv. Solitary confinement
Code:
A B C D
a. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
b. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
c. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
d. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
71. An executioner who executes the death penalty is protected from criminal liability under which section of I.P.C.?
a. Section 80
b. Section 79
c. Section 78
d. Section 77
72. Which one of the following is not the Secondary Evidence?
a. Certified copies
b. Where a number of documents are made by one uniform process
c. Copies made from the original
d. Copies compared with original
73. The superintendence of the Police throughout as General Police district vests in:
a. The Superintendent of Police
b. The Inspector General of Police
c. The High Court
d. The State Government
74. A meets Z on highway, shows a pistol and demands Z’s purse. Z, in consequence surrenders his purse. A has committed:
a. Extortion
b. Theft
c. Robbery
d. Cheating
75. “The Supreme Court attached importance to the fact the accused were from the same village and, naturally know to the prosecution witness and, therefore could have recognised them in the light of lantern.”
a. Ram Gautam Chaudhary v. State of Bihar, AIR 2001 SC 2842
b. State of Rajasthan v. Bhup Singh, (1997) 10 SCC 375
c. Ganu Chandra v. Emperor, ILR (1932) 56 Bom
d. R v. Gold, (1840) 9 C&P 364
76. Which of the following Section of I.P.C. have no reference to offence relating to sex?
I. Section 87
II. Section 375
III. Section 88
IV. Section 89
Select correct answer with the help of code given below:
a. (I) and (III)
b. (II) and (III)
c. (I) (II) (III) and (IV)
d. (I) (III) and (IV)
77. Which of the following particulars need not be contained in a charge?
a. A statement of the offence with which the accused is charged
b. The section of law against which the offence is said to have been committed. necessarily along with definition of crime contained therein
c. Particulars as to time and place of the alleged offence
d. Particulars of the manner in which the offence was committed
78. An accused person can file an application for plea bargaining in:
a. Any Court
b. District Court
c. Court in which the offence is pending for trial
d. High Court
79. Match List-I with List-ll and select correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List-I List-II
A. Dying declaration I. State of Rajasthan
v. Parthur
B. Interested witness II. Bhagga v. State
of M.P.
C. Admissions III. Nishikant v. State
of Bihar
D. Estoppel IV. B.L. Shreedhar v. K.M.
Mhari Reddy
Code:
A B C D
a. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
b. (IV) (III) (II) (I)
c. (II) (III) (IV) (I)
d. (III) (Iv) (I) (II)
80. In which section of Evidence Act presumption of dowry death is given?
a. Section 113
b. Section 113A
c. Section 113B
d. None of the above
81. In which of the following offence the rights of private defence of property does not extend to causing of death:
a. Robbery
b. House Trespass
c. House breaking by night
d. Mischief by fire in a dwelling house
82. The head of the criminal administration of the district is:
a. District Magistrate
b. Superintendent of Police
c. District and Session-Judge
d. All the above
83. In which one of the following Section of the Cr.P.C. provision for free legal aid is made?
a. Section 406
b. Section 301
c. Section 304
d. Section 306
84. Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 empowers the State Government for quartering additional police force in a disturbed or dangerous district?
a. Section 16
b. Section 13
c. Section 15
d. Section 14
85. Consider the following classed of Courts:
I. High Courts
II. Courts of Session
III. Judicial Magistrate of First Class, Judicial Magistrate of Second Class and Metropolitan Magistrates
IV. Executive Magistrates
Which of the above Courts is/are included in the classes of Criminal Courts under Cr.P.C?
Code
a. (I) (II) and (IV)
b. (II) and (III) only
c. (I) and (IV) only
d. (IV) only
86. Assertion (A): Section 433 of Cr.P.C. empowers the Appropriate Governments to commute a sentence.
Reason (R): The Government has power to commute sentence of imprisonment for life into imprisonment of 10 years.
Mark the correct answer from the code given below:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the not correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
87. In which section of the Evidence Act opinion as to digital signature is provided?
a. Section 48
b. Section 45A
c. Section 47A
d. Section 48A
88. A village Police (Chaukidar) is responsible for the due performance of his duties to:
a. The Superintendent of Police
b. The Officer-Incharge of the Police Station
c. The Pradhan of the Village
d. The District Magistrate
89. Under Section 107 of Cr.P.C. and Executive Magistrate may order a person to execute a bond for keeping the peace for a period not exceeding:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Six months
90. Under which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C. the review of a judgment or final order is prohibited except to correct a clerical or arithmetical error?
a. Section 261
b. Section 262
c. Section 361
d. Section 362
91. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
a. Facts showing requisite state of mind are relevant
b. Evidence can be given of every fact from which the state of a person's body or bodily feeling can be inferred
c. Evidence can be given of fact as will prove general state of mind of a person
d. The previous conviction of a person may also be relevant in some cases.
92. On “Res ipsa loquitur” principle which is the leading case under the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Jit Singh v. State of Punjab, (1976) 2 SCC 836
b. Amrit Banaspati Co. Ltd. V. State of Punjab, AIR 1992 SC 1075
c. Howell v. Fallouth Boat Construction Co., (1954) AC 176
d. Scott v. London and Katherin Docks Co. 150 ER 665.
93. A, a candidate at an election propagated that he was Chalanti Vishnu and representative of Lord Jagannath himself and that anyone who does not vote for him would be sinner against the Lord and the Hindu religion:
a. He is guilty of committing the offence of under influence at election, punishable under I.P.C. (171C)
b. He is not guilty of an offence under I.P.C., but his candidature shall be cancelled
c. He is not guilty under any law for the time being in force
d. He is guilty of the offence of personation of election
94. The facts relating to question of relevancy of right or custom are contained in which one of the foll owing section of Indian Evidence Act:
a. Section 13
b. Section 15
c. Section 48
d. Section 49
95. The power to arrest a member of Lok Sabha is provide under:
a. Para 147A of U.P. Police Regulation
b. Section 45 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Section 20 of Representation of the People Act, 1950
d. Section 30A of Police Act, 1861
96. Which one of the following judgment is a judgment if rem?
a. A final judgment is a suit for restitution of conjugal rights
b. A final judgment in a suit for libel
c. A final judgment in a suit for divorce
d. A final judgment in a suit for breach of contract
97. Which one of the following is not an essential element of abduction?
a. A person is compelled by use of force to move from one place to another
b. A person is induced by deceitful means to move from one place to another
c. Neither use of force nor deceitful means are necessary to constitute abduction
d. Actual use of force is necessary and merely show of force is not sufficient.
98. Which one of the following offence cannot be compounded by the persons?
a. Causing hurt
b. Adultery
c. House trespass
d. Counterfeiting-coin
99. The Court of Magistrate of the second class is empowered to pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding:
a. Two years
b. Three years
c. One year
d. Seven years
100. The procedure for Postmortem examination is provided in which para of the U.P. Police Regulations?
a. Para 137
b. Para 138
c. Para 140
d. Para 139
101. Which of the following is neither an offence against person nor against property?
a. Cheating
b. Sedition
c. Robbery
d. Murder
102. Consider the following statements:
I. Section 34 of IPC requires two persons whereas Section 149 of IPC requires five persons
II. Section 34 of IPC requires common intention whereas Section 149 of IPC requires common object
III. Section 34 of IPC and Section 149 of IPC both require presence of a prior consent
IV. Section 34 of IPC and Section 149 of IPC both create specific offence.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. (I) and (III)
b. (II) and (III)
c. (I) and (II)
d. (II) and (IV)
103. In a quarrel between husband and wife, the husband tries to beat the wife with a stick which accidentally falls on the newly born baby in her hand and the baby dies instantly. Husband is guilty of the offence
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Grievous hurt
d. Causing death by negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide
104. Consider the following statements:
I. Public Prosecutor and Assistant Public Prosecutor represent the Government
II. Public Prosecutor and Assistant Public Prosecutor present and plead with written authority before any Court
III. Both Public Prosecutor and Assistant Public Prosecutor are appointed for conduction prosecution in the Court of Magistrates and Court of Sessions.
Which of the above statement is/are correct:
a. (I) only
b. (II) only
c. (III) only
d. (I) (II) and (III) all
105. Match List-I with List-ll and select correct answer using codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Motive I. Section 62
B. Conclusive Proof II. Section 75
C. Primary Evidence III. Section 8
D. Private document IV. Section 4
Code:
A B C D
a. (II) (III) (I) (IV)
b. (III) (IV) (I) (II)
c. (II) (IV) (III) (I)
d. (IV) (II) (I) (III)
106. In a case, A and B were jointly tried for the murder of C. A said, “B and I murdered C”. What will be the evidential value of A’s statement against B?
a. Conclusive proof
b. Court may consider the statement against B
c. A's statement will not be considered by court against B
d. A's statement is a confession against A only
107. The burden of proving that the case of an accused comes within general exceptions of IPC is on:
a. The accused
b. The prosecution
c. The court
d. Both on the accused and prosecution
108. A, a surgeon, sees a child suffer an accident which is likely to prove, fatal unless an operation be immediately performed. There is no time to apply to the child’s guardian. A performs the operation inspite of the entreaties of the child, in good faith, for the child’s benefit. The child died, A has committed:
a. Culpable homicide
b. Murder
c. Attempt to murder
d. No offence
109. A gives a cheque for Rs. 1500 to B, which he knows will be dishonored. In this case:
a. A has committed no offence
b. A is guilty of attempting to cheat
c. A is liable for cheating
d. A is liable for abetting to cheat
110. A shoots at B with the intention to kill him but misses his mark due to some defect in his gun. A is liable for:
a. No offence
b. Attempt to murder
c. Preparation to murder
d. Abetment to murder
111. D, a girl aged 16 years out of her free will goes out with B for having sexual intercourse and there is no evidence of use of force of inducement by deceitful means by B. Here:
a. B is not guilty of any offence
b. B is guilty of committing rape
c. B is guilty of kidnapping
d. B is guilty of abduction
112. A Cashier of a Bank too away Rs. 10,000 from the bank with an intention to restore the money within one month, the cashier committed:
a. Criminal Misappropriation
b. Criminal breach of trust
c. Theft
d. Attempt to theft
113. “The trial in pursuance of the notification for holding the sitting of the Session Court in Tihar Jail was not illegal.” It was held in:
a. Ajib Singh v. Joginder Singh, AIR 1968 SC 1422
b. In re: Madhu Limaye, AIR 1969 SC 1014
c. State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu, AIR 1961 SC 1808
d. Kehar Singh v. State, 1989 Cr LJ1 (SC)
114. With reference to the U.P. Police Regulations, match List-I and List-ll and select the correct answer with the help of code given below:
List-I List-II
A. Appointment I. Chapter I
B. At kept on a Police Station II. Chapter XV
C. Special Crimes III. Chapter XXIII
D. Superior Offices IV. Chapter XXIX
Code:
A B C D
a. (IV) (III) (II) (I)
b. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
c. (II) (IV) (I) (IIII)
d. (III) (I) (IV) (II)
115. A went to his in-laws house for bringing back his wife W; but his father-in-law was not agreeable to let W go with her husband A. A started dragging his reluctant wife W behind him for taking her along forcibly X, the brother of wife on seeing this stabbed A once with knife, which resulted in A’s death:
a. X is guilty of committing murder
b. X is guilty of committing culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. X has the right to private defence of person, so he is not guilty of any offence
d. None of the above
116. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. Inquiry is made by Magistrate
b. An inquiry is not a judicial proceeding
c. The object of inquiry is to determine the truth of falsity of certain facts
d. Inquiry is the second stage of a criminal case
117. What are the relevant facts in the following:
A is tried for the murder of B. The fact that:
I. B knew that A had murdered C
II. B extorted money from A
III. B was married
IV. B threatened A to make his knowledge public
Find out the correct answer with the help of the code given below:
a. (I) and (iv)
b. (I) (II) and (IV)
c. (I) (II) (III) and (IV)
d. (II) and (IV)
118. A finds the key of Z’s house door, which Z had lost and enters the house by opening the door of Z’s house with that key. Here A is guilty of:
a. Theft
b. Cheating
c. Housebreaking
d. Robbery
119. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Examination of witness
by police I. Section 53A
B. Examination of person
accused medical
practitioner II. Section 161
C. Medical examination of
the victim of rape III. Section 200
D. Examination of
complainant IV. Section 164A
Code:
A B C D
a. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
b. (II) (I) (IV) (III)
c. (II) (IV) (I) (III)
d. (IV) (II) (III) (I)
120. Assertion (A): Oral admissions of contents of electronic record are always relevant.
Reason (R): Statement contained in electronic form is an admission.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
121. The prosecution of judges and public servants are provided in:
a. Section 196, Cr.P.C.
b. Section 197, Cr.P.C.
c. Section 198, Cr.P.C.
d. Section 199, Cr.P.C.
122. What can be proved by oral evidence?
a. Contents of a documents
b. All facts
c. Contents of electronic records
d. All facts except the contents of documents and electronic records
123. Point out incorrect answer:
a. Rape means sexual intercourse by a man with a woman if it is
b. By her husband when she is below 16 years of age
c. Without her consent
d. With her consent when she is under 16 years of age
124. The Jail doctor confined a prisoner in a cell to administer enema against his will. He is guilty
a. No offence
b. Kidnapping
c. Wrongful confinement
d. Wrongful restraint
125. B administers arsenic to D, a boy aged 9 years with the object of preventing the father of boy from appearing as a witness against him. Here:
a. B is guilty of culpable homicide
b. B is guilty of committing murder
c. B is guilty of causing death by negligence
d. B is guilty of causing grievous hurt
126. Husband left his wife without any information. She enquired about him, but in vain. After waiting for
a. Not guilty as she had no means rea
b. Guilty of bigamy as she deliberately
c. Guilty of bigamy as her husband
d. Not guilty as marriage is not a wrong in itself
127. Sakshi v. Union of India AIR 2003 SC 77 is related to:
a. Sexual assault
b. Molestation
c. Use of criminal force of woman
d. Rape
128. Consider the following statement:
The armed police are intended:
I. For the protection of treasuries and lock-ups
II. For the escorts of prisoners and government property
III. For the maintenance of discipline and efficacy in police line
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
a. Only (I) is correct
b. Only (II) is correct
c. (I) (II) and (III) correct
d. Only (I) and (II) are correct
129. Assertion (A): Dying declaration can be the basis of conviction.
Reason (R): Dying declaration must be made with expectation of death,
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
130. The Inspector General of Police may employ an additional force in the neighbourhood of railway with the consent of the following:
a. District Magistrate
b. Ministry of Railways
c. State Governments
d. Superintendent of Police, Railway
131. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?
a. Pandurang v. State of Hyderabad — Common intention
b. R v. McNaughten — Act of person of unsound mind
c. R v. Prince — Mens rea
d. R v. Williams —Murder
132. Which one of the following is a Public Document?
a. Electoral roll
b. Police diary
c. First Information Report under Section 154 of Cr.P.C
d. All the above
133. Two statements have been given here under one of which is described as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Assertion (A): Any charge against a Police Officer above the rank of a constable, shall be enquired and determined only by an Officer exercising the powers of a Magistrate.
Reason (R): Director General/Inspector General of Police shall have the full powers of a Magistrate throughout the General Police district.
Codes:
a. (A) and (R) both the correct
b. (A) is right but (R) is wrong
c. (A) is wrong but (R) is right
d. (A) and (R) both are wrong
134. Which one of the following is not an illustration of criminal force?
a. A shakes his fist at B
b. A spits over B
c. A removes the veil of a lady B without her consent
d. A tortures his tenant B in order to compel him to pay his rent
135. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List-I List-II
A. Section 60 I. Leading question
B. Section 141 II. Hostile witness
C. Section 154 III. Refresh Memory
D. Section 159 IV. Oral evidence must be direct
Code:
A B C D
a. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
b. (II) (I) (III) (IV)
c. (IV) (II) (I) (III)
d. (IV) (I) (II) (III)
136. Who can grant a warrant to search for a document, parcel or other thing in the custody of the Postal or Telegraph Authority?
a. District Magistrate
b. Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
137. A voluntarily throw into a river a ring belonging to Z, with the intention of thereby causing wrongful loss to Z. A has committed:
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Mischief
c. Extortion
d. Assault
138. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has held that a married daughter with independent sufficient means of her own is liable to maintain her father or mother under Section 125 of Cr.P.C.?
a. Rewati Bai v. Jogeshwar
b. Sundeep Chaudhary v. Radha Chaudhary
c. K.V. Rudraiah v. B.S. Mudda Gangamma
d. Vijay Manohar Arbat v. Kashi Rao Raja Ram Sawai
139. The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is:
a. Coupled with imminent danger to life
b. Coupled with force
c. Committed by two or more but less than five persons
d. Committed by five or more persons
140. Which one of the following is not a valuable security?
a. A copy of a lease
b. A rent note
c. A deed of divorce
d. A promissory note
141. Fraudulently or dishonestly inducing a person to deliver any property to any person is:
a. Theft
b. Criminal misappropriation
c. No offence
d. Cheating
142. The power of Supreme Court to transfer cases from one High Court to another is exercised on an application by:
a. Registrar of the concerned High Court
b. Attorney General of India
c. Chairman of the Bar Council of India
d. Advocate General of concerned State
143. A confession is inadmissible if it is made by the accused:
a. To a magistrate while he is in the custody of a police officer
b. To a doctor while he is in the custody of a police officer
c. To his friend while he is not in the custody of a police officer
d. To a spiritual adviser under the inducement of the good of his soul
144. Give correct answer:
a. Minor must be under 18 years if a male
b. Minor must be under 16 years if a female
c. Person must be below 21 years whether a male or female
d. Minor must be under the age of 16 years if a male or under 18 years if a female
145. “Hearsay evidence is not evidence” which of the following sections of the Evidence Act is an exception to the aforesaid rule?
a. Section 13
b. Section 32
c. Section 20
d. Section 23
146. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below:
List-I List-II
A. Rex v. Leveth I. Murder
B. Tabu Chetia v. State
of Assam II. Criminal Conspiracy
C. Vijayan v. State of
Kerala III. Insanity
D. State of UP v.
Virendra Prasad IV. Mistake of Fact
A B C D
a. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
b. (I) (III) (IV) (II)
c. (IV) (III) (II) (I)
d. (III) (IV) (II) (I)
147. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:'
List-I List-II
A. Section 366 I. No appeal in petty cases
B. Section 376 II. Submission of sentence of
death by Court of Session
to the High Court for
confirmation
C. Section 437 III. Inherent Powers of High
Courts
D. Section 482 IV. Bail in non-bailable
offence
Code:
A B C D
a. (II) (I) (IV) (III)
b. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
c. (IV) (III) (II) (I)
d. (III) (IV) (I) (II)
148. The “Person” shall include which of the following under the provisions of the Police Act, 1861:
a. A company, corporation or individuals
b. Only a company or corporation
c. A firm, association of persons and company
d. An association of persons, firm and company
149. Under which section of the Cr.P.C. the Court has power to summon any person as a witness at any state of trial?
a. Section 309
b. Section 175
c. Section 310
d. Section 311
150. Physical injuries were caused to A at Sultanpur and he dies of those injuries at Lucknow, where he was brought for treatment. Which Court shall have jurisdiction to try the case?
a. Sultanpur
b. Lucknow
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above