THE NARCOTIC DRUGS AND PSYCHOTROPIC SUBSTANCES, ACT, 1985
1. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act bears which Act number?
a. Act No. 59 of 1985
b. Act No. 60 of 1985
c. Act No. 61 of 1985
d. Act No. 62 of 1985
2. The NDPS Act received the assent on which date?
a. 15th August, 1985
b. 16th September, 1985
c. 26th January, 1985
d. 1st October, 1985
3. The NDPS Act was enacted to consolidate and amend the law relating to:
a. Dangerous drugs only
b. Psychotropic substances only
c. Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
d. Habit-forming substances
4. Which of the following best reflects the nature of provisions introduced by the NDPS Act as per its preamble?
a. Liberal provisions
b. Reformative provisions
c. Stringent provisions
d. Temporary provisions
5. The NDPS Act seeks to control and regulate which of the following operations?
a. Manufacture only
b. Sale only
c. Operations relating to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
d. Consumption alone
6. The preamble relating to forfeiture of property was inserted to provide for:
a. Confiscation of personal belongings
b. Forfeiture of property derived from or used in illicit traffic
c. Seizure of agricultural land
d. Nationalisation of drug manufacturing units
7. The forfeiture provision under the NDPS Act is linked specifically to property:
a. Owned by accused persons
b. Acquired before commencement of the Act
c. Derived from or used in illicit traffic
d. Situated outside India
8. The NDPS Act also aims to implement provisions of:
a. Domestic criminal law reforms
b. SAARC conventions
c. International Conventions on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
d. WHO guidelines
9. The phrase “and for matters connected therewith” indicates that the Act:
a. Is limited to offences only
b. Covers only procedural law
c. Extends to ancillary and incidental matters
d. Applies only to Central Government authorities
10. The NDPS Act was enacted by Parliament in which year of the Republic of India?
a. Thirty-fourth year
b. Thirty-fifth year
c. Thirty-sixth year
d. Thirty-seventh year
11. The enacting clause of the NDPS Act begins with which phrase?
a. “Whereas it is expedient…”
b. “Be it enacted by the Parliament…”
c. “It is hereby declared…”
d. “Notwithstanding anything contained…”
12. The legislative authority responsible for enacting the NDPS Act is:
a. State Legislature
b. Constituent Assembly
c. Parliament of India
d. Ministry of Home Affairs
13. The short title of the Act as provided under Section 1(1) is:
a. The Narcotic Substances Act, 1985
b. The Narcotic Drugs Act, 1985
c. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
d. The Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
14. Section 1(1) of the NDPS Act deals with:
a. Extent of the Act
b. Commencement of the Act
c. Short title of the Act
d. Applicability of the Act
15. As per Section 1(2), the NDPS Act extends to:
a. Whole of India excluding Jammu & Kashmir
b. Whole of India
c. Whole of India and neighbouring countries
d. Whole of India subject to State adoption
16. The territorial extent clause of the NDPS Act is contained under:
a. Section 1(1)
b. Section 1(2)
c. Section 1(3)
d. Section 2
17. In addition to extending to the whole of India, the NDPS Act also applies to:
a. Only Indian citizens residing abroad
b. Foreign nationals residing in India
c. Certain persons and conveyances outside India
d. Only offences committed within India
18. Clause (a) of the bracketed portion under Section 1(2) applies the Act to:
a. All residents of India
b. All citizens of India outside India
c. All foreign nationals outside India
d. Only diplomats outside India
19. Clause (b) of the bracketed portion under Section 1(2) applies the Act to:
a. All ships and aircrafts operating in India
b. All ships and aircrafts owned by Indian citizens
c. All ships and aircrafts registered in India, wherever they may be
d. Only commercial ships registered in India
20. The expression “wherever they may be” under Section 1(2)(b) signifies:
a. Territorial limitation
b. Extraterritorial application
c. Conditional application
d. Temporary application
21. The commencement of the NDPS Act under Section 1(3) is dependent upon:
a. Presidential assent
b. Parliamentary approval
c. Notification by the Central Government
d. Judicial declaration
22. The notification bringing the NDPS Act into force must be published in:
a. The Gazette of India
b. The Official Gazette
c. The Parliamentary Bulletin
d. The Law Commission Report
23. Section 1(3) empowers the Central Government to:
a. Bring the entire Act into force on a single date only
b. Appoint different dates for different provisions
c. Appoint different dates only for different States
d. Delegate commencement power to State Governments
24. Under Section 1(3), different dates may be appointed for:
a. Different offences only
b. Different punishments only
c. Different provisions and different States
d. Different courts
25. A reference to the “commencement of this Act” in any provision shall be construed:
a. Uniformly for all States
b. As the date of Presidential assent
c. In relation to a State as the date that provision comes into force in that State
d. As the date of notification in the Gazette of India
26. The power to appoint commencement dates under Section 1(3) vests in:
a. State Government
b. Parliament
c. Central Government
d. Supreme Court
27. Section 2(i) defines an “addict” as:
a. Any person who has ever used a narcotic drug or psychotropic substance
b. A person who has dependence on any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance
c. A person possessing narcotic drugs for personal use
d. Any person under medical treatment for addiction
28. Section 2(ii) defines the “Board” as:
a. Narcotics Control Bureau
b. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
c. Central Board of Excise and Customs constituted under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, 1963
d. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
29. Section 2(iii) defines “cannabis (hemp)” to include:
a. Charas, i.e., separated resin from the cannabis plant, including hashish oil or liquid hashish
b. Ganja, i.e., flowering or fruiting tops of the cannabis plant (excluding seeds and leaves not accompanied by tops)
c. Any mixture of charas or ganja or any drink prepared therefrom
d. All of the above
30. Section 2(iv) defines “cannabis plant” as:
a. Only plants used for producing charas
b. Only plants used for producing ganja
c. Any plant of the genus cannabis
d. Any plant containing more than 0.1% THC
31. Section 2(iva) defines “Central Government factories” as:
a. Only factories fully owned by the Central Government
b. Any factory owned by a private company producing narcotics
c. Factories owned by the Central Government or any company in which the Central Government holds at least 51% of the paid-up share capital
d. Only factories under the Ministry of Health
32. Section 2(v) defines “coca derivative” as:
a. Crude cocaine, i.e., any extract of coca leaf usable for cocaine manufacture
b. Ecgonine and all derivatives from which it can be recovered
c. Cocaine, i.e., methyl ester of benzoyl-ecgonine and its salts
d. All preparations containing more than 0.1% cocaine
e. All of the above
33. Section 2(vi) defines “coca leaf” and specifically excludes:
a. Leaf of coca plant from which all ecgonine, cocaine, and other ecgonine alkaloids have been removed
b. Mixtures of coca leaf with neutral material
c. Leaf containing more than 0.1% cocaine
d. Any extract usable for manufacture of cocaine
34. Section 2(vi)(b) states that a coca leaf mixture containing not more than 0.1% cocaine is considered coca leaf. True or False?
a. True
b. False
35. Section 2(vii) defines “coca plant” as:
a. Any plant producing coca leaves for commercial use
b. The plant of any species of the genus Erythroxylon
c. Only coca plants grown in India
d. Any plant containing cocaine
36. Section 2(viia) defines “commercial quantity” in relation to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances as:
a. Any quantity exceeding the limit specified by the local police
b. Any quantity exceeding the quantity specified by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette
c. Any quantity over 1 kilogram
d. Any quantity for which profit is intended
37. Section 2(viib) defines “controlled delivery” as:
a. Seizing drugs before they enter India
b. Allowing illicit or suspect consignments of narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances, controlled substances or substituted substances to pass out of, through, or into India under supervision of an empowered officer to identify offenders
c. Any delivery of narcotics by registered courier
d. Delivery of legal narcotics for medical use
38. Section 2(viic) defines “corresponding law” as:
a. Any law corresponding to the provisions of this Act
b. Any law enacted after 1985
c. Any law related to customs violations
d. Any law related to pharmaceutical regulation
39. Section 2(viid) defines “controlled substance” as:
a. Any substance that can cause addiction
b. Any substance which the Central Government declares to be a controlled substance having regard to its possible use in production or manufacture of narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances or international convention obligations
c. Any illicitly traded narcotic
d. Any plant derivative
40. Section 2(viii) defines “conveyance” as:
a. Any vehicle carrying narcotics
b. Only aircraft or ship used for drug trafficking
c. Any conveyance of any description whatsoever, including aircraft, vehicle, or vessel
d. Only vehicles used for interstate transport of drugs
41. Section 2(viiia) defines “essential narcotic drug” as:
a. Any narcotic drug used for recreational purposes
b. Any narcotic drug notified by the Central Government for medical and scientific use
c. Cocaine and opium only
d. All psychotropic substances
42. Under Section 2(viiib), “illicit traffic” in relation to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances includes:
a. Cultivating any coca plant or gathering any portion of it
b. Cultivating the opium poppy or any cannabis plant
c. Engaging in production, manufacture, possession, sale, purchase, transportation, warehousing, concealment, use or consumption, import inter-State, export inter-State, import into India, export from India or transhipment of narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances
d. All of the above
43. Section 2(viiib) also includes dealing in activities or handling premises for carrying out any of the illicit activities other than those permitted under this Act. Which of the following is included?
a. Financing directly or indirectly any of the illicit activities
b. Abetting or conspiring in furtherance or support of any illicit activities
c. Harbouring persons engaged in illicit activities
d. All of the above
44. Which of the following is not included in the definition of “illicit traffic” under Section 2(viiib)?
a. Engaging in activities permitted under the Act, rules, orders, licence conditions or authorisations
b. Harbouring persons engaged in illicit activities
c. Financing illicit trafficking
d. Abetting illicit trafficking
45. Section 2(ix) defines “International Convention” to include:
a. The Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961 adopted at New York by the UN
b. The Protocol amending the 1961 Convention adopted at Geneva in 1972
c. The Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971 adopted at Vienna
d. Any other international convention, protocol, or instrument relating to narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances ratified or acceded to by India after this Act commenced
e. All of the above
46. Section 2(x) defines “manufacture” in relation to narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances as including:
a. All processes other than production by which such drugs or substances may be obtained
b. Refining of such drugs or substances
c. Transformation of such drugs or substances
d. Making of preparations with or containing such drugs or substances, other than in a pharmacy on prescription
e. All of the above
47. Section 2(xi) defines “manufactured drug” as:
a. All coca derivatives, medicinal cannabis, opium derivatives, and poppy straw concentrate
b. Any other narcotic substance or preparation which the Central Government may declare not to be a manufactured drug by notification in the Official Gazette
c. Only narcotic substances used for medical purposes
d. Both (a) and (b)
48. Section 2(xii) defines “medicinal cannabis” as:
a. Any cannabis plant used for recreational purposes
b. Any extract or tincture of cannabis (hemp)
c. Only the flowering tops of the cannabis plant
d. Any cannabis used in Ayurveda
49. Section 2(xiii) defines “Narcotics Commissioner” as:
a. The head of the Narcotics Control Bureau
b. The officer appointed under section 5 of the NDPS Act
c. Any officer of the Central Government empowered to investigate NDPS offences
d. The Chairman of the NDPS Consultative Committee
50. Section 2(xiv) defines “narcotic drug” as:
a. Coca leaf, cannabis (hemp), opium, poppy straw, and all manufactured drugs
b. Only cannabis (hemp) and opium
c. Only drugs prohibited under international conventions
d. All psychotropic substances
51. Section 2(xv) defines “opium” as:
a. Only the juice of the opium poppy
b. The coagulated juice of the opium poppy and any mixture, with or without neutral material, of such juice
c. Any preparation containing not more than 0.2% morphine
d. Both (b) and (c)
52. Section 2(xvi) defines “opium derivative” to include:
a. Medicinal opium adapted for medicinal use as per Indian Pharmacopoeia or other notified pharmacopoeia, in powder, granulated, or mixed with neutral materials
b. Prepared opium, including products of opium for smoking and residues remaining after opium is smoked
c. Phenanthrene alkaloids, namely, morphine, codeine, thebaine and their salts
d. Diacetylmorphine (heroin) and its salts
e. All preparations containing more than 0.2% morphine or containing diacetylmorphine
f. All of the above
53. Section 2(xvii) defines “opium poppy” as:
a. Only the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L.
b. The plant of any other Papaver species from which opium or any phenanthrene alkaloid can be extracted and declared as opium poppy by the Central Government
c. Any cannabis plant used for opium extraction
d. Both (a) and (b)
54. Section 2(xviii) defines “poppy straw” as:
a. Only the juice extracted from the opium poppy
b. All parts of the opium poppy except the seeds, after harvesting, whether in original form, cut, crushed, or powdered, and whether or not juice has been extracted
c. Only the flowers of the opium poppy
d. None of the above
55. Section 2(xix) defines “poppy straw concentrate” as:
a. The seeds of the opium poppy
b. The material arising when poppy straw has entered into a process for the concentration of its alkaloids
c. The powdered opium used for medicinal purposes
d. The leftover stems after juice extraction
56. Section 2(xx) defines “preparation” in relation to a narcotic drug or psychotropic substance as:
a. Any one or more such drugs or substances in dosage form
b. Any solution or mixture, in whatever physical state, containing one or more such drugs or substances
c. Only tablets and capsules
d. Both (a) and (b)
57. Section 2(xxi) defines “Prescribed” as:
a. Prescribed by the judiciary
b. Prescribed by rules made under this Act
c. Prescribed by the Central Government orally
d. None of the above
58. Section 2(xxii) defines “production” as:
a. Transformation of drugs into chemical derivatives
b. Separation of opium, poppy straw, coca leaves, or cannabis from the plants from which they are obtained
c. Manufacturing of narcotic drugs in factories
d. Export of drugs
59. Section 2(xxiii) defines “psychotropic substance” as:
a. Any natural substance
b. Any synthetic substance
c. Any natural material or any salt or preparation of such substances included in the list of psychotropic substances specified in the Schedule
d. All of the above
60. Section 2(xxiiia) defines “small quantity” as:
a. Any quantity greater than the quantity specified by the Central Government
b. Any quantity lesser than the quantity specified by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette
c. Any quantity used for commercial purposes
d. Any quantity exceeding one kilogram
61. Section 2(xxiv) defines “to import inter-State” as:
a. To bring narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances into India from outside the country
b. To bring narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances into a State or Union territory in India from another State or Union territory in India
c. To export narcotic drugs from India
d. To transport drugs within the same State
62. Section 2(xxv) defines “to import into India” as:
a. To bring narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances into India from a place outside India
b. To bring such substances into any port, airport, or place in India even if intended to be taken out of India without being removed from the vessel, aircraft, vehicle, or conveyance in which it is being carried
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only importing for commercial purposes
63. Section 2(xxvi) defines “to export from India” as:
a. To take narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances out of India to a place outside India
b. To transport drugs from one State to another within India
c. To export only through authorized ports
d. To export drugs for personal consumption abroad
64. Section 2(xxvii) defines “to export inter-State” as:
a. To take narcotic drugs out of India
b. To take drugs from one State or Union territory in India to another State or Union territory in India
c. To transport drugs internationally
d. To transport drugs within the same State
65. Section 2(xxviii) defines “to transport” as:
a. To take narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances from one State to another
b. To take such substances from one place to another within the same State or Union territory
c. To export substances outside India
d. To import substances into India
66. Section 2(xxviiia) defines “use” in relation to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances as:
a. Only personal consumption
b. Any kind of use except personal consumption
c. Only medicinal use
d. Only commercial use
67. Section 2(xxix) clarifies that:
a. Words and expressions not defined in the NDPS Act but defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, shall have the meanings assigned in that Code
b. All undefined terms shall be interpreted according to the Customs Act, 1962
c. Undefined terms can be freely interpreted by the competent authority
d. None of the above
68. Section 2(xxix) also provides an explanation regarding percentages in liquid preparations:
a. 1% of a substance means 1 gram of solid or 1 millilitre of liquid in every 100 grams or 100 millilitres of the preparation
b. Percentages are always calculated by weight, not volume
c. 1% always refers to 1 kilogram in 100 litres of preparation
d. Percentages cannot be prescribed by rules
69. Under Section 2(xxix), the Central Government may:
a. Prescribe, by rules, any other basis for calculating percentages in liquid preparations considering developments in methods of calculation
b. Only follow the 1 gram/1 millilitre per 100 units basis
c. Delegate calculation of percentages to the police
d. Ignore percentages in liquid preparations
70. Section 3 of the NDPS Act deals with the power to:
a. Regulate manufacture of psychotropic substances
b. Prohibit psychotropic substances
c. Add to or omit from the list of psychotropic substances
d. Punish offences relating to psychotropic substances
71. The authority empowered under Section 3 to add or omit substances is:
a. State Government
b. Parliament
c. Central Government
d. Drug Controller General of India
72. The exercise of power under Section 3 is conditional upon the Central Government being:
a. Directed by Parliament
b. Satisfied that it is necessary or expedient
c. Recommended by State Governments
d. Advised by the judiciary
73. The satisfaction required under Section 3 must be based on:
a. Administrative convenience alone
b. Public opinion
c. Specific factors enumerated in the section
d. Police reports only
74. Clause (a) of Section 3 requires consideration of information and evidence relating to:
a. Price and availability of the substance
b. Nature, effects, and abuse or scope for abuse of the substance
c. Commercial use of the substance
d. Medical prescription trends
75. Under Section 3(a), the substance whose nature and effects may be considered can be:
a. Only natural
b. Only synthetic
c. Either natural or synthetic
d. Only plant-based
76. Section 3(a) applies not only to substances but also to:
a. Finished pharmaceutical products only
b. Natural material, salts, or preparations
c. Chemical reagents used in laboratories
d. Raw agricultural produce
77. The expression “scope for abuse” under Section 3(a) relates to:
a. Economic misuse
b. Industrial misuse
c. Potential misuse leading to drug abuse
d. Regulatory loopholes
78. Clause (b) of Section 3 mandates consideration of:
a. Recommendations of WHO
b. Amendments in domestic criminal law
c. Modifications or provisions in International Conventions
d. Judicial precedents
79. The International Conventions referred to in Section 3(b) relate to:
a. Arms control
b. Human rights
c. Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
d. Maritime law
80. The power under Section 3 may be exercised where modifications or provisions have been made:
a. Only to Indian law
b. Only to bilateral treaties
c. To or in any International Convention
d. By State Governments
81. The Central Government may exercise power under Section 3 by:
a. Executive order
b. Parliamentary amendment
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Judicial declaration
82. The list to which substances may be added or from which they may be omitted is specified in:
a. The Rules
b. The Schedule
c. The Regulations
d. The Code of Criminal Procedure
83. The power under Section 3 includes the authority to:
a. Only add substances
b. Only omit substances
c. Both add to and omit from the list
d. Temporarily suspend substances
84. The term “such substance or material” in Section 3 refers to:
a. Only substances listed in the Schedule
b. Substances covered under clauses (a) and (b)
c. Only substances manufactured in India
d. Only prohibited substances
85. Section 4 of the NDPS Act primarily deals with:
a. Powers of State Governments
b. Powers of courts
c. Measures to be taken by the Central Government
d. Penalties for illicit traffic
86. The measures under Section 4(1) are to be taken by the Central Government:
a. Independently of the Act
b. Subject to the provisions of the Act
c. Subject to approval of State Governments
d. Subject to judicial directions
87. The purpose of measures under Section 4(1) includes:
a. Prevention of abuse only
b. Combating illicit traffic only
c. Prevention of abuse and combating illicit traffic
d. Punishment of offenders
88. Section 4(1) empowers the Central Government to take measures it deems:
a. Mandatory
b. Advisable
c. Necessary or expedient
d. Economically feasible
89. The bracketed portion of Section 4(1) additionally emphasizes ensuring:
a. Commercial availability
b. Export of substances
c. Medical and scientific use
d. Private manufacture
90. Section 4(2) begins with the expression:
a. “Notwithstanding anything contained…”
b. “In particular and without prejudice to the generality…”
c. “Subject to the approval of Parliament…”
d. “Provided that…”
91. The measures listed in Section 4(2) are:
a. Exhaustive
b. Restrictive
c. Illustrative
d. Conditional
92. Clause (a) of Section 4(2) relates to:
a. Training of judicial officers
b. Coordination of actions
c. Rehabilitation of addicts
d. Medical use of substances
93. Coordination under Section 4(2)(a) includes actions by:
a. Only Central officers
b. Only State Governments
c. Officers, State Governments and other authorities
d. International organisations only
94. Section 4(2)(a)(i) refers to coordination under:
a. International Conventions
b. This Act
c. The IPC
d. The CrPC
95. Section 4(2)(a)(ii) refers to coordination under:
a. Any other law for the time being in force connected with enforcement
b. Only NDPS Rules
c. Customs Act only
d. Foreign laws
96. Clause (b) of Section 4(2) specifically refers to:
a. Judicial cooperation
b. International Conventions obligations
c. Medical research
d. State legislation
97. Clause (c) of Section 4(2) provides for assistance to:
a. State Governments only
b. Domestic NGOs
c. Foreign authorities and international organisations
d. Private hospitals
98. The objective of assistance under Section 4(2)(c) is to facilitate:
a. Commercial trade
b. Coordination and universal action
c. Bilateral treaties
d. Judicial extradition
99. Clause (d) of Section 4(2) relates to:
a. Punishment of addicts
b. Surveillance of addicts
c. Identification, treatment, rehabilitation and social re-integration of addicts
d. Deportation of addicts
100. Clause (da) of Section 4(2) specifically deals with:
a. Export of narcotic drugs
b. Availability for medical and scientific use
c. Licensing of manufacturers
d. Destruction of seized drugs
101. Clause (e) of Section 4(2) empowers the Central Government regarding:
a. Matters expressly listed only
b. Matters it deems necessary or expedient
c. Matters approved by Parliament
d. Matters recommended by courts
102. Section 4(3) empowers the Central Government to constitute:
a. Special courts
b. Advisory committees
c. An authority or hierarchy of authorities
d. Drug control tribunals
103. The constitution of authorities under Section 4(3) must be done by:
a. Parliamentary enactment
b. Executive instruction
c. Order published in the Official Gazette
d. Judicial notification
104. Authorities constituted under Section 4(3) exercise powers:
a. Independently of the Central Government
b. Subject to supervision and control of the Central Government
c. Under State Government control
d. Under judicial supervision
105. The powers exercised by authorities under Section 4(3) are:
a. Inherent powers
b. Delegated powers of the Central Government
c. Judicial powers
d. Legislative powers
106. Such authority or authorities under Section 4(3) may exercise powers:
a. As delegated by Parliament
b. As if empowered directly by the Act
c. Only through State Governments
d. Only after judicial approval
107. Section 4 overall reflects the role of the Central Government as:
a. Punitive authority only
b. Coordinating and policy-making authority
c. Judicial authority
d. Licensing authority exclusively
108. Section 5 of the NDPS Act deals with:
a. Officers of State Government
b. Officers of Central Government
c. Powers of courts
d. Constitution of special authorities
109. Section 5(1) begins with which qualifying phrase?
a. “Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act”
b. “Subject to the provisions of this Act”
c. “Without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (3) of section 4”
d. “Provided that”
110. Under Section 5(1), the Central Government shall appoint:
a. A Drug Controller
b. A Narcotics Commissioner
c. A Director of Prosecution
d. A Chief Inspector
111. Apart from the Narcotics Commissioner, the Central Government may appoint:
a. Only officers specified in the Act
b. Officers with designations prescribed by Parliament
c. Such other officers with such designations as it thinks fit
d. Officers recommended by State Governments
112. Officers appointed under Section 5(1) are appointed for the purposes of:
a. Criminal prosecution only
b. Regulation of medical drugs
c. This Act
d. International treaties
113. Section 5(2) primarily relates to the powers and functions of:
a. Central Government
b. Board
c. Narcotics Commissioner
d. State Government officers
114. The Narcotics Commissioner may exercise his powers under Section 5(2):
a. Only personally
b. Only through State officers
c. Either by himself or through subordinate officers
d. Only with judicial approval
115. The core function entrusted to the Narcotics Commissioner under Section 5(2) is:
a. Superintendence of drug trafficking investigations
b. Superintendence of cultivation of opium poppy and production of opium
c. Licensing of pharmaceutical companies
d. Destruction of seized narcotics
116. In addition to specified functions, the Narcotics Commissioner may also exercise:
a. Judicial powers
b. Legislative powers
c. Such other powers and functions as may be entrusted by the Central Government
d. Powers delegated by State Governments
117. The authority competent to entrust additional powers to the Narcotics Commissioner is:
a. Parliament
b. Board
c. Central Government
d. Supreme Court
118. Section 5(3) applies to which officers?
a. Officers appointed under Section 4(3)
b. Officers appointed under Section 5(1)
c. State Government officers
d. Judicial officers
119. Officers appointed under Section 5(1) are subject to the general control and direction of:
a. State Governments
b. The Board only
c. The Central Government
d. Parliament
120. Under Section 5(3), officers may also be placed under the control of:
a. Courts
b. State Governments
c. The Board or any other authority or officer
d. Foreign authorities
121. Placement of officers under the Board or other authority under Section 5(3) requires:
a. Parliamentary approval
b. Judicial order
c. Direction by the Central Government
d. Recommendation of the Narcotics Commissioner
122. Section 5 establishes the administrative hierarchy primarily for:
a. Prosecution of NDPS offences
b. Judicial adjudication
c. Centralised supervision and control under the Act
d. State-level enforcement
123. Section 6 of the NDPS Act provides for the constitution of:
a. A regulatory authority
b. An enforcement agency
c. An advisory committee
d. A judicial body
124. The authority empowered to constitute the Consultative Committee under Section 6(1) is:
a. Parliament
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. Board
125. The Consultative Committee under Section 6 is constituted by:
a. Executive order
b. Parliamentary resolution
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Judicial direction
126. The official name of the committee constituted under Section 6 is:
a. Narcotics Advisory Board
b. Psychotropic Substances Committee
c. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Consultative Committee
d. Central Narcotics Committee
127. The Consultative Committee is constituted to advise the Central Government on:
a. Matters referred to it by Parliament
b. Matters relating to investigation
c. Matters relating to the administration of the Act referred by the Government
d. Matters concerning State legislation
128. The expression “hereafter in this section referred to as the Committee” appears in:
a. Section 6(1)
b. Section 6(2)
c. Section 6(3)
d. Section 6(4)
129. The Committee under Section 6(2) shall consist of:
a. A Chairman only
b. A Chairman and not more than twenty other members
c. A Chairman and exactly twenty members
d. A Chairman and members nominated by States
130. The maximum number of members other than the Chairman in the Committee is:
a. Ten
b. Fifteen
c. Twenty
d. Twenty-five
131. The members of the Committee under Section 6(2) are appointed by:
a. Parliament
b. State Governments
c. Central Government
d. Supreme Court
132. The Committee shall meet:
a. At fixed statutory intervals
b. Once every year
c. When required by the Central Government
d. At the discretion of the Chairman
133. The Committee has the power to:
a. Frame binding regulations
b. Regulate its own procedure
c. Issue executive orders
d. Conduct investigations
134. The power to regulate its own procedure is provided under:
a. Section 6(1)
b. Section 6(2)
c. Section 6(3)
d. Section 6(4)
135. Under Section 6(4), the Committee may constitute:
a. Special courts
b. Regional offices
c. One or more sub-committees
d. Enforcement wings
136. The Committee may constitute sub-committees for:
a. Any judicial function
b. Efficient discharge of any of its functions
c. Prosecution of offenders
d. Licensing purposes
137. A sub-committee under Section 6(4) may include:
a. Only members of the Committee
b. Only government officials
c. Any person including a non-official
d. Only experts nominated by Parliament
138. A person appointed to a sub-committee under Section 6(4):
a. Must be a Committee member
b. Must be a government servant
c. Need not be a member of the Committee
d. Must be approved by Parliament
139. The Committee may appoint persons to sub-committees:
a. Only permanently
b. Only temporarily
c. Generally or for a particular matter
d. Only for advisory purposes
140. Matters relating to term of office of members of the Committee are to be:
a. Provided in the Act
b. Determined by the Chairman
c. Prescribed by rules
d. Decided by Parliament
141. The authority competent to make rules regarding the Committee is:
a. Parliament
b. Board
c. Central Government
d. Supreme Court
142. Rules made under Section 6(5) may provide for:
a. Punishment of Committee members
b. Allowances payable to the Chairman and members
c. Judicial powers of the Committee
d. Enforcement powers
143. Casual vacancies in the Committee are to be filled:
a. By fresh legislation
b. As prescribed by rules
c. By judicial order
d. By State Governments
144. Conditions and restrictions for appointing non-members to sub-committees shall be:
a. Fixed by the Committee
b. Decided by the Chairman
c. Prescribed by Central Government rules
d. Left to executive discretion
145. Section 7 of the NDPS Act deals with:
a. Officers of Central Government
b. Officers of State Government
c. Powers of the Board
d. Constitution of authorities
146. Under Section 7(1), the authority empowered to appoint officers is:
a. Central Government
b. State Legislature
c. State Government
d. Board
147. Officers under Section 7(1) may be appointed:
a. Only with designations specified in the Act
b. Only with designations prescribed by rules
c. With such designations as the State Government thinks fit
d. Only as recommended by the Central Government
148. Officers appointed under Section 7(1) are appointed for the purposes of:
a. Enforcement of criminal law generally
b. This Act
c. State NDPS Rules only
d. Investigation under the CrPC
149. Section 7(2) applies to:
a. Officers appointed under Section 4
b. Officers appointed under Section 5
c. Officers appointed under Section 7(1)
d. Officers appointed under Section 6
150. Officers appointed under Section 7(1) shall be subject to the general control and direction of:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Board
d. Judiciary